Foundations of Advanced Psychiatric Mental Health Practice (D343)
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Free Foundations of Advanced Psychiatric Mental Health Practice (D343) Questions
What occurs during the orientation phase?
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Planning to meet the patient
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Planning to meet the patient
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Getting to know the patient
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Asking other providers about the patient
Explanation
Correct answer:
C. Getting to know the patient
Explanation:
The orientation phase is the initial stage of the nurse-patient relationship, during which the nurse and patient become acquainted. This phase involves building trust, setting expectations, and gathering relevant information about the patient's background and concerns. Establishing rapport is crucial in this stage to ensure effective communication and a therapeutic relationship. The nurse introduces themselves, explains their role, and begins assessing the patient's needs and goals.
Why other options are wrong:
A. Planning to meet the patient
While preparation before meeting a patient is important, the actual orientation phase begins when the nurse interacts with the patient. Planning alone does not involve direct engagement, which is essential for establishing trust and rapport in this stage.
B. Working together with the patient
Working collaboratively with the patient is a key component of the working phase, not the orientation phase. The working phase focuses on implementing treatment plans, providing education, and addressing the patient’s concerns, whereas the orientation phase is centered on initial introductions and trust-building.
D. Asking other providers about the patient
Gathering background information from other providers can be helpful, but it is not a defining characteristic of the orientation phase. The primary focus in this stage is direct interaction with the patient to establish rapport and begin assessment, rather than relying solely on external sources of information.
This therapeutic communication technique involves putting words to the person's emotional reaction, which acknowledges the person's feelings.
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Clarification
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Silence
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Restatement
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Reflection
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Summarizing
Explanation
Correct answer:
D. Reflection
Explanation:
Reflection is a therapeutic communication technique in which the nurse acknowledges and verbalizes the patient's emotions, helping them recognize and process their feelings. This technique validates the patient's experience and fosters a sense of understanding and empathy. For example, if a patient says, "I feel so overwhelmed with everything happening," the nurse might respond, "It sounds like you're feeling really stressed and unsure about how to cope." This response helps the patient feel heard and understood.
Why other options are wrong:
A. Clarification
Clarification is used when the nurse asks the patient to explain further or restates information to ensure understanding. It focuses on factual content rather than emotions. For example, "Can you explain what you mean by feeling ‘off’ today?"
B. Silence
Silence is a technique that allows the patient time to think and process their thoughts. It encourages self-reflection but does not involve verbalizing the patient’s emotions.
C. Restatement
Restatement involves repeating or paraphrasing the patient’s words to show understanding, but it does not specifically address emotions. An example would be, "You said you feel tired all the time?"
E. Summarizing
Summarizing is used to review key points of the conversation and ensure mutual understanding. It is more about organization and clarity rather than emotional validation. An example would be, "So far, we've talked about your anxiety, trouble sleeping, and work stress. Does that sound right?"
What defines a close personal relationship characterized by deep emotional connection and mutual support?
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A casual friendship
-
An intimate relationship
-
A professional partnership
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An acquaintance
Explanation
Correct answer:
B. An intimate relationship
Explanation:
An intimate relationship is defined by a deep emotional connection, mutual support, and often a sense of commitment between individuals. These relationships may include romantic, familial, or very close friendships where trust, vulnerability, and emotional bonds are strong.
Why other options are wrong:
A. A casual friendship
A casual friendship involves social interaction and companionship but lacks the depth of emotional connection and commitment seen in intimate relationships.
C. A professional partnership
A professional partnership is based on mutual work-related goals and responsibilities rather than emotional closeness and personal support. While respect and collaboration may be present, it does not typically involve deep personal connections.
D. An acquaintance
An acquaintance is a person with whom one has limited interactions or a superficial relationship. These relationships do not involve deep emotional bonds or sustained mutual support
What is the primary goal of conducting a psychiatric nursing assessment?
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To evaluate the patient's medical history
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To identify the patient's strengths and weaknesses
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To gather information about the patient's current mental health status
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To establish a treatment plan for the patient
Explanation
Correct answer:
C. To gather information about the patient's current mental health status
Explanation:
The main goal of a psychiatric nursing assessment is to collect comprehensive information regarding a patient’s mental health, including symptoms, behaviors, emotional state, and cognitive function. This assessment allows nurses and healthcare providers to determine appropriate interventions and care strategies based on the patient’s immediate needs.
Why other options are wrong:
A. To evaluate the patient's medical history
While reviewing a patient’s medical history is part of the assessment, it is not the primary goal. The main focus is on the patient’s current mental health status, which determines necessary interventions.
B. To identify the patient's strengths and weaknesses
Identifying strengths and weaknesses is important for treatment planning, but it is not the primary objective. The primary goal is to assess the current mental health condition.
D. To establish a treatment plan for the patient
A treatment plan is developed after the psychiatric nursing assessment, but the assessment itself is focused on gathering information rather than setting a treatment plan.
Which types of assessments are essential components of a comprehensive psychiatric nursing evaluation?
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Physical, emotional, and cognitive assessments
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Psychosocial, spiritual, cultural, and religious assessments
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Behavioral, environmental, and nutritional assessments
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Neurological, genetic, and pharmacological assessments
Explanation
Correct answer:
B. Psychosocial, spiritual, cultural, and religious assessments
Explanation:
A comprehensive psychiatric nursing evaluation involves assessing multiple dimensions of a patient's well-being beyond just physical or cognitive health. Psychosocial, spiritual, cultural, and religious assessments provide insight into the patient’s support systems, personal values, coping mechanisms, and potential barriers to treatment. These assessments help nurses develop holistic care plans that address the patient’s mental health needs while considering their unique background and belief systems.
Why other options are wrong:
A. Physical, emotional, and cognitive assessments
While these are important components of a psychiatric evaluation, they do not encompass the full scope of a comprehensive assessment. A psychiatric nurse must also evaluate social, cultural, and spiritual factors, which play significant roles in mental health and treatment outcomes.
C. Behavioral, environmental, and nutritional assessments
These assessments contribute to understanding a patient's well-being but are not the primary focus of a comprehensive psychiatric nursing evaluation. Psychiatric assessments prioritize social, cultural, and spiritual influences alongside psychological and emotional factors.
D. Neurological, genetic, and pharmacological assessments
While relevant in some cases, these assessments are typically more specialized and fall under medical or psychiatric evaluations rather than comprehensive nursing assessments. A psychiatric nurse focuses more on psychosocial, cultural, and emotional aspects of care.
Evidence-Based Practice (EBP) is best described as:
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Relying solely on clinical experience
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Incorporating the best available evidence, clinical expertise, and patient preferences
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Disregarding research findings in patient care decisions
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Following traditional practices without considering new evidence
Explanation
Correct answer:
B.Incorporating the best available evidence, clinical expertise, and patient preferences
Explanation:
EBP integrates three key components: the best available scientific research, the clinical expertise of healthcare providers, and the values and preferences of patients. This approach ensures that patient care is effective, personalized, and based on the most current knowledge. It leads to improved patient outcomes, enhanced safety, and higher standards of healthcare.
Why other options are wrong:
A. Relying solely on clinical experience.
While clinical experience is valuable, relying solely on it without considering research and patient preferences may result in outdated or less effective care. EBP ensures that care is backed by scientific evidence.
C. Disregarding research findings in patient care decisions.
Ignoring research findings contradicts the principles of EBP, which prioritizes using the best available evidence to guide decision-making in healthcare.
D. Following traditional practices without considering new evidence.
Traditional practices are not always the most effective or safest options. EBP encourages continuous learning and adaptation based on current research rather than rigidly adhering to outdated methods
What is a key consideration regarding personal space during therapeutic communication?
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Maintaining a distance of 1-2 ft to enhance intimacy
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Keeping a distance of 3-6 ft to ensure comfort
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Standing 7-10 ft away to avoid invasion of personal space
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Sitting directly next to the patient to foster closeness
Explanation
Correct answer:
B. Keeping a distance of 3-6 ft to ensure comfort
Explanation:
Personal space is an important factor in therapeutic communication. A distance of 3-6 feet is considered appropriate for maintaining a professional yet comfortable interaction. This distance respects the patient's personal boundaries while allowing for effective communication and engagement. It ensures the patient does not feel threatened or overwhelmed while maintaining a connection that facilitates trust.
Why other options are wrong:
A. Maintaining a distance of 1-2 ft to enhance intimacy
This distance is too close for most patients and may cause discomfort or anxiety. In professional settings, such close proximity is generally reserved for specific medical procedures rather than routine communication.
C. Standing 7-10 ft away to avoid invasion of personal space
While this distance prevents personal space invasion, it is too far for effective therapeutic communication. It may create a sense of detachment and make it difficult to establish rapport with the patient.
D. Sitting directly next to the patient to foster closeness
Sitting too close may be perceived as intrusive and may not be appropriate, particularly for patients who are anxious or have personal space concerns. Instead, a balanced distance that allows for both comfort and engagement is preferred.
Which behaviors are assessed during the mental status examination?
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Speech, consciousness, orientation, and body movements
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Consciousness, facial expression, speech, and mood
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Posture, attention span, orientation, and mood
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Body movements, orientation, speech, and mood
Explanation
Correct Answer:
D. Body movements, orientation, speech, and mood
Explanation:
The Mental Status Examination (MSE) assesses various aspects of a patient's cognitive, emotional, and behavioral functioning. Key areas of assessment include body movements (to evaluate psychomotor activity), orientation (awareness of time, place, and self), speech (rate, tone, and clarity), and mood (emotional state). These factors provide insight into the patient’s mental and emotional well-being.
Why other options are wrong:
A. Speech, consciousness, orientation, and body movements – While speech, orientation, and body movements are part of the MSE, consciousness is typically assessed separately under neurological examinations rather than as a primary focus of MSE.
B. Consciousness, facial expression, speech, and mood – Facial expression is considered under affect rather than as a key MSE behavior. Consciousness, while important, is more relevant to neurological assessments rather than psychiatric evaluations.
C. Posture, attention span, orientation, and mood – While posture and attention span are observed, attention span is more relevant to cognitive testing rather than the broader MSE categories. Mood and orientation are correctly included, but body movements and speech are more critical components.
Empathic understanding, actions, and patience on another's behalf.
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Comforting
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Attending
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Advocacy
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Caring
Explanation
Correct answer
D. Caring
Explanation:
Caring involves demonstrating empathy, understanding, and support for another person’s well-being. It includes actions that reflect kindness, patience, and concern, ensuring that patients feel valued and respected. In nursing, caring is fundamental to establishing a therapeutic relationship and providing holistic, compassionate care. It encompasses both emotional and physical support, fostering trust and comfort for patients.
Why other options are wrong:
A. Comforting
Comforting involves providing reassurance and emotional or physical relief to someone in distress. While comforting is an aspect of caring, caring is a broader concept that includes empathy, understanding, and taking action to support another’s well-being beyond just providing comfort.
B. Attending
Attending refers to being fully present and engaged in a conversation or interaction with a patient. It involves active listening and observing both verbal and nonverbal cues to understand a patient’s needs. However, attending is a skill used within caring rather than a complete representation of it.
C. Advocacy
Advocacy involves speaking up for a patient's rights, needs, and best interests. While advocacy is an essential part of nursing care, it primarily focuses on ensuring that patients receive proper treatment and respect. Caring, on the other hand, encompasses a broader range of compassionate actions beyond advocacy, including emotional support and empathetic understanding.
What therapeutic communication technique directs questions, feelings, and ideas back to the patient and encourages the patient to accept his or her ideas and feelings, acknowledges the patient's right to have opinions and make decisions, and encourages the patient to think of self as a capable person?
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Summarizing
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Restating
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Exploring
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Reflecting
Explanation
Correct answer:
D.Reflecting
Explanation:
Reflecting is a therapeutic communication technique that helps patients recognize their own thoughts and emotions by directing their statements back to them. It validates their experiences, fosters self-awareness, and encourages personal growth. By using reflection, the nurse empowers the patient to explore their own ideas, reinforcing their autonomy and decision-making abilities.
Why other options are wrong:
A. Summarizing.
Summarizing involves reviewing key points of a conversation to ensure understanding but does not directly encourage the patient to explore their feelings or develop self-awareness.
B. Restating.
Restating involves repeating what the patient has said using slightly different words to clarify meaning. However, it does not direct the conversation back to the patient in a way that encourages self-reflection and personal decision-making.
C. Exploring.
Exploring is used to encourage patients to discuss a topic in more depth, but it does not necessarily validate their emotions or reinforce their sense of self-capability in the same way that reflecting does
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Table of Contents
- Introduction to Advanced Psychiatric Mental Health Practice
- Key Topics in Advanced Psychiatric Mental Health Practice
- 2.1 The Role of the Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner (PMHNP)
- 2.2 Psychiatric Assessment and Diagnostic Criteria
- 2.3 Psychopharmacology in Mental Health Nursing
- 2.4 Psychotherapy Modalities in Advanced Practice
- 2.5 Ethical and Legal Considerations in Mental Health Practice
- Case Study 1: Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) with Suicidal Ideation
- 3.1 Patient Profile
- 3.2 Assessment Findings
- 3.3 Diagnosis
- 3.4 Treatment Plan
- 3.5 Case Study Analysis
- Case Study 2: Bipolar Disorder with Psychotic Features
- 4.1 Patient Profile
- 4.2 Assessment Findings
- 4.3 Diagnosis
- 4.4 Treatment Plan
- 4.5 Case Study Analysis
- Conclusion
NURS 6436 D343: Foundations of Advanced Psychiatric Mental Health Practice
Study Notes
Introduction to Advanced Psychiatric Mental Health Practice
Advanced Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing (APMHN) involves the assessment, diagnosis, and treatment of psychiatric disorders across the lifespan. Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioners (PMHNPs) utilize evidence-based interventions, psychotherapy, and psychopharmacology to provide comprehensive care.
Key Topics in Advanced Psychiatric Mental Health Practice
1. The Role of the Psychiatric Mental Health Nurse Practitioner (PMHNP)
- Conducts psychiatric evaluations and assessments.
- Diagnoses mental health disorders based on DSM-5 criteria.
- Develops treatment plans incorporating medication, therapy, and holistic care.
- Collaborates with interdisciplinary teams including psychiatrists, psychologists, social workers, and primary care providers.
- Provides psychoeducation and advocacy for patients and families.
2. Psychiatric Assessment and Diagnostic Criteria
- Comprehensive mental health assessment includes:
- Patient history (medical, psychiatric, family, social, substance use, trauma history).
- Mental Status Examination (MSE): appearance, behavior, mood, thought process, cognition.
- Standardized screening tools (PHQ-9, GAD-7, CAGE-AID, MMSE).
- DSM-5 Criteria for common disorders such as:
- Major Depressive Disorder (MDD)
- Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
- Bipolar Disorder
- Schizophrenia Spectrum Disorders
- Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
3. Psychopharmacology in Mental Health Nursing
- Antidepressants (SSRIs, SNRIs, TCAs, MAOIs):
- Example: Fluoxetine (Prozac) for MDD and OCD.
- Antipsychotics (Typical & Atypical):
- Example: Risperidone for schizophrenia and bipolar disorder.
- Anxiolytics (Benzodiazepines, Buspirone):
- Example: Lorazepam for acute anxiety and panic disorder.
- Mood Stabilizers:
- Example: Lithium for bipolar disorder.
- Stimulants & Non-Stimulants for ADHD:
- Example: Methylphenidate for ADHD.
4. Psychotherapy Modalities in Advanced Practice
- Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT): Used for depression, anxiety, PTSD.
- Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT): Effective for borderline personality disorder.
- Interpersonal Therapy (IPT): Used for mood disorders.
- Psychodynamic Therapy: Helps patients explore past conflicts affecting present behavior.
5. Ethical and Legal Considerations in Mental Health Practice
- HIPAA and patient confidentiality.
- Involuntary commitment and patient rights.
- Informed consent and capacity assessment.
- Prescriptive authority and scope of practice regulations.
Case Study 1: Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) with Suicidal Ideation
Patient Profile
- Name: Sarah J.
- Age: 28
- Gender: Female
- Presenting Complaint: Persistent sadness, fatigue, lack of motivation, and passive suicidal ideation for the past 6 months.
Assessment Findings
- History: No previous psychiatric history, stressful work environment, recent breakup.
- Mental Status Examination (MSE):
- Appearance: Well-groomed, minimal eye contact.
- Mood: Depressed.
- Affect: Restricted.
- Thought process: Slow but logical.
- Suicidal ideation: Passive, denies plan.
- PHQ-9 Score: 18 (Severe Depression).
Diagnosis
- Major Depressive Disorder, Severe (DSM-5 criteria met).
Treatment Plan
- Psychopharmacology:
- Start Sertraline 50mg daily; titrate based on response.
- PRN Hydroxyzine for anxiety.
- Psychotherapy:
- Weekly Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) sessions.
- Safety Planning:
- Establish emergency contacts and crisis hotline.
- Follow-Up:
- Weekly follow-up for mood assessment and medication monitoring.
Case Study Analysis
- Why this treatment? Sertraline is an SSRI with a good safety profile for depression.
- Why CBT? Helps in restructuring negative thoughts and improving coping mechanisms.
- Ethical considerations: Ensure patient autonomy and assess risk frequently.
Case Study 2: Bipolar Disorder with Psychotic Features
Patient Profile
- Name: Mark T.
- Age: 36
- Gender: Male
- Presenting Complaint: Episodes of euphoria, impulsivity, reduced need for sleep, and grandiose delusions.
Assessment Findings
- History: Diagnosed with Bipolar I disorder at 25, history of medication non-compliance.
- Mental Status Examination (MSE):
- Appearance: Disheveled.
- Mood: Euphoric.
- Affect: Expansive.
- Thought content: Grandiose delusions (believes he owns a multinational company).
- Speech: Pressured.
- Young Mania Rating Scale (YMRS) Score: 34 (Severe Mania).
Diagnosis
- Bipolar I Disorder, Manic Episode with Psychotic Features (DSM-5 criteria met).
Treatment Plan
- Psychopharmacology:
- Start Lithium 300mg BID.
- Add Olanzapine 5mg QHS for psychotic features.
- Therapeutic Interventions:
- Psychoeducation on medication adherence.
- Family therapy to enhance support.
- Hospitalization Consideration:
- Due to psychosis and impaired judgment, inpatient stabilization may be needed.
- Follow-Up:
- Monitor lithium levels to prevent toxicity.
- Weekly psychiatric evaluations.
Case Study Analysis
- Why Lithium? Gold standard for bipolar disorder maintenance therapy.
- Why Olanzapine? Atypical antipsychotic for acute manic symptoms.
- Ethical Considerations: Assessing competency for treatment decisions.
Conclusion
Advanced Psychiatric Mental Health Practice requires a multifaceted approach integrating pharmacology, psychotherapy, and ethical considerations. PMHNPs play a critical role in diagnosing and treating mental health conditions, ensuring holistic and patient-centered care.
By mastering these foundational principles, students can provide effective and evidence-based psychiatric care, improving outcomes for individuals with mental health disorders.
Q and A Sample
Question 1:
A 35-year-old patient presents with excessive worry about various aspects of their life, including work performance and personal relationships, for the past six months. This worry is difficult to control and is accompanied by restlessness and muscle tension. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
B. Panic Disorder
C. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
D. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Correct Answer:
A. Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)
Explanation:
Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is a mental health condition characterized by persistent, excessive worry about various aspects of life, occurring more days than not for at least six months. Individuals with GAD often find it difficult to control their anxiety, which is accompanied by physical and cognitive symptoms such as restlessness, fatigue, difficulty concentrating, muscle tension, and sleep disturbances. Unlike situational anxiety, GAD involves chronic, widespread worry that significantly impacts daily functioning. Treatment typically includes cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) and medications such as SSRIs, SNRIs, or benzodiazepines for symptom management.
Incorrect Options:
B. Panic Disorder
Panic Disorder is marked by recurrent unexpected panic attacks and persistent concern about having additional attacks. This patient's symptoms are more generalized and persistent, lacking the episodic nature of panic attacks.
C. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder involves the presence of obsessions (intrusive thoughts) and/or compulsions (repetitive behaviors) that are time-consuming or cause significant distress. The patient's symptoms do not indicate obsessions or compulsions.
D. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder occurs after exposure to a traumatic event, with symptoms like intrusive memories, avoidance, negative mood, and hyperarousal. There is no indication of a traumatic event in this patient's history.
Question 2:
A 50-year-old patient reports a persistent depressed mood, loss of interest in activities, significant weight loss, insomnia, and feelings of worthlessness for the past two months. Which neurotransmitter is most likely associated with these symptoms?
A. Dopamine
B. Serotonin
C. GABA
D. Glutamate
Correct Answer:
B. Serotonin
Explanation:
Serotonin is a key neurotransmitter involved in mood regulation, emotional stability, and overall well-being. Low levels of serotonin are strongly linked to depression, contributing to symptoms such as sadness, low energy, sleep disturbances, and changes in appetite. Many antidepressants, particularly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) like fluoxetine and sertraline, work by increasing serotonin levels in the brain to improve mood and alleviate depressive symptoms. Beyond mood regulation, serotonin also plays a role in anxiety, cognition, and social behavior. Maintaining balanced serotonin levels is essential for mental health and emotional stability.
Incorrect Options:
A. Dopamine
Dopamine is involved in reward and pleasure pathways. While it can be related to mood disorders, the patient's symptoms are more closely linked to serotonin dysregulation.
C. GABA
GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid) is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain and is more associated with anxiety disorders than depression.
D. Glutamate
Glutamate is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter and has been implicated in various psychiatric conditions, but its role in depression is less direct compared to serotonin.
Question 3:
A patient with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations and delusions. Which class of medication is most appropriate for managing these symptoms?
A. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)
B. Mood Stabilizers
C. Antipsychotics
D. Benzodiazepines
Correct Answer:
C. Antipsychotics
Explanation:
Antipsychotic medications are the first-line treatment for schizophrenia, primarily targeting positive symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. They work by blocking dopamine (D2) receptors, reducing excessive dopamine activity, which is believed to contribute to psychotic symptoms. Typical (first-generation) antipsychotics like haloperidol are effective but may cause extrapyramidal side effects. Atypical (second-generation) antipsychotics like risperidone and olanzapine offer broader symptom control with fewer motor side effects. Long-term treatment is essential for preventing relapse and improving overall functioning. Regular monitoring is necessary to manage side effects such as weight gain, metabolic changes, and movement disorders.
Incorrect Options:
A. Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors are primarily used to treat depression and anxiety disorders and are not effective for psychotic symptoms.
B. Mood Stabilizers
Mood Stabilizers are used to manage mood fluctuations, especially in bipolar disorder, but are not first-line treatments for schizophrenia.
D. Benzodiazepines
Benzodiazepines are anxiolytics used for anxiety and agitation but do not address the core psychotic symptoms of schizophrenia.
Question 4:
A 28-year-old patient presents with a history of alternating periods of elevated mood, increased energy, and decreased need for sleep, followed by periods of depression. Which medication is considered a first-line treatment for stabilizing mood in this condition?
A. Lithium
B. Fluoxetine
C. Haloperidol
D. Lorazepam
Correct Answer:
A. Lithium
Explanation:
Lithium is a first-line mood stabilizer used in the treatment of bipolar disorder, which is characterized by alternating episodes of mania and depression. It effectively reduces the severity and frequency of mood swings by modulating neurotransmitter activity and stabilizing neuronal excitability. Lithium is particularly effective in preventing manic episodes and reducing the risk of suicidal behavior in bipolar patients. Unlike antidepressants, which can trigger mania in bipolar disorder, lithium provides long-term mood stability. Regular monitoring of lithium levels, kidney function, and thyroid function is essential to prevent toxicity and ensure safe use.
Incorrect Options:
B. Fluoxetine
Fluoxetine is an SSRI antidepressant used for major depressive disorder and anxiety disorders but can potentially trigger manic episodes in bipolar patients if not used cautiously.
C. Haloperidol
Haloperidol is an antipsychotic used to manage acute psychotic symptoms but is not typically used for long-term mood stabilization in bipolar disorder.
D. Lorazepam
Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and agitation but does not have mood-stabilizing properties.