3121 Pharm 2 Exam 3 Summer 2026
Access The Exact Questions for 3121 Pharm 2 Exam 3 Summer 2026
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock Actual Exam Questions and Answers for 3121 Pharm 2 Exam 3 Summer 2026 on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Ace Your Test with 3121 Pharm 2 Exam 3 Summer 2026 Actual Questions and Solutions - Full Set
Free 3121 Pharm 2 Exam 3 Summer 2026 Questions
Which instruction is most important for a patient taking cyclosporine?
-
Take with antacids
-
Avoid grapefruit juice
-
Increase potassium intake
-
Limit protein intake
Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Avoid grapefruit juice
Grapefruit juice inhibits the CYP3A4 enzyme responsible for metabolizing cyclosporine, which can cause dangerously elevated cyclosporine blood levels and increase the risk of toxicity (including nephrotoxicity). This makes avoiding grapefruit juice a critical safety instruction for patients on this medication.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. There is no significant interaction or need to take cyclosporine with antacids; this is not a priority instruction for this medication.
C. Cyclosporine actually tends to cause hyperkalemia (elevated potassium) as a potential side effect, so increasing potassium intake would be inappropriate and potentially dangerous.
D. There is no specific need to limit protein intake with cyclosporine use; this is not a relevant safety instruction for this medication.
Please use the following order to answer the question: Order: Ampicillin 250 mg IV every 4 hours for infection. Supply: Ampicillin 1 g vial. Nursing drug reference: Reconstitute with 10 mL of 0.9% NS and further dilute in 50 mL NS. Infuse over 15 min.
How many milliliters will you draw from the vial after reconstitution? Round to the first decimal place.
-
2.5 mL
Explanation
Correct Answer Is:
2.5 mL
Formula:
Volume (mL) = Dose Ordered (mg) ÷ Concentration (mg/mL)
Calculation:
Determine the concentration after reconstitution: 1 g (1000 mg) vial reconstituted with 10 mL = 100 mg/mL
Volume = 250 mg ÷ 100 mg/mL = 2.5 mL
After reconstituting the 1 g (1000 mg) vial with 10 mL of NS, the resulting concentration is 100 mg/mL. Dividing the ordered dose (250 mg) by this concentration (100 mg/mL) gives the volume that must be drawn from the vial to deliver the correct dose.
A patient receiving filgrastim develops sudden shortness of breath, tachypnea, hypoxemia, and bilateral pulmonary crackles. Which complication should the nurse suspect?
-
Mild bone marrow stimulation
-
Hyperglycemia
-
Expected medication-related fever
-
Acute respiratory distress syndrome
Explanation
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a rare but serious, recognized complication of filgrastim therapy, and this patient's presentation — sudden shortness of breath, tachypnea, hypoxemia, and bilateral pulmonary crackles — is classic for this life-threatening pulmonary complication.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Mild bone marrow stimulation is the expected therapeutic mechanism of filgrastim and would not cause acute respiratory symptoms.
B. Hyperglycemia is unrelated to filgrastim's known adverse effect profile and does not explain this specific respiratory presentation.
C. Fever can occur with filgrastim, but it does not account for this severe respiratory symptom cluster, which is specifically indicative of a serious pulmonary complication like ARDS.
The nurse explains the purpose of bevacizumab to a patient with non-small cell lung cancer. Which explanation is most accurate?
A. "It binds to vascular endothelial growth factor and limits the tumor's blood supply."
B. "It prevents the kidneys from excreting anticancer medications."
C. "It stimulates your immune system to produce more neutrophils."
D. "It directly destroys all rapidly dividing cancer cells."
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (A) "It binds to vascular endothelial growth factor and limits the tumor's blood supply."
Bevacizumab is a monoclonal antibody that specifically binds to vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), inhibiting the formation of new blood vessels (angiogenesis) that tumors need to grow, effectively limiting the tumor's blood supply and growth.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
B. Bevacizumab does not act on the kidneys or affect the excretion of other medications; this is not its mechanism of action.
C. Stimulating neutrophil production describes the mechanism of filgrastim, not bevacizumab.
D. Bevacizumab does not directly destroy cancer cells like traditional chemotherapy; its mechanism is specifically targeted at inhibiting blood vessel formation to starve the tumor, not direct cytotoxic action on rapidly dividing cells.
-
"It binds to vascular endothelial growth factor and limits the tumor's blood supply."
-
"It prevents the kidneys from excreting anticancer medications."
-
"It stimulates your immune system to produce more neutrophils."
-
"It directly destroys all rapidly dividing cancer cells."
Explanation
Bevacizumab is a monoclonal antibody that specifically binds to vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), inhibiting the formation of new blood vessels (angiogenesis) that tumors need to grow, effectively limiting the tumor's blood supply and growth.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. Bevacizumab does not act on the kidneys or affect the excretion of other medications; this is not its mechanism of action.
C. Stimulating neutrophil production describes the mechanism of filgrastim, not bevacizumab.
D. Bevacizumab does not directly destroy cancer cells like traditional chemotherapy; its mechanism is specifically targeted at inhibiting blood vessel formation to starve the tumor, not direct cytotoxic action on rapidly dividing cells.
Thirty minutes after beginning a blood transfusion, the patient reports chills, low back pain, and shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
-
Slow the transfusion rate.
-
Administer acetaminophen.
-
Stop the transfusion immediately and maintain IV access with normal saline.
-
Continue the transfusion while reassessing in 15 minutes.
Explanation
Chills, low back pain, and shortness of breath occurring during a transfusion are classic signs of an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, a life-threatening emergency. The priority is to stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further infusion of the incompatible blood, while keeping the IV line open with normal saline to maintain access for emergency treatment.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Slowing the rate does not stop the ongoing hemolytic process and delays the critical intervention needed to prevent further harm.
B. Administering acetaminophen may help with fever but does not address the underlying life-threatening reaction and delays the essential priority of stopping the transfusion.
D. Continuing the transfusion in the presence of these symptoms risks worsening the hemolytic reaction and can lead to shock, renal failure, or death.
Match each medication with its most important characteristic or safety concern. Each answer may be used once.
Medication → Options to choose from:
- Should not be given to children with viral infections due to risk of Reye syndrome
- Commonly used NSAID with risk of renal impairment in long-term use
- Limited to short-term use (≤5 days) due to high risk of GI bleeding and renal toxicity
Ketorolac → ?
Ibuprofen → ?
Aspirin → ?
-
Ketorolac → Limited to short-term use (≤5 days) due to high risk of GI bleeding and renal toxicity
-
Ibuprofen → Commonly used NSAID with risk of renal impairment in long-term use
-
Aspirin → Should not be given to children with viral infections due to risk of Reye syndrome
Explanation
Ketorolac is a potent NSAID with a significantly higher risk of serious GI bleeding and nephrotoxicity compared to other NSAIDs, which is why its use is strictly limited to a maximum of 5 days. Ibuprofen is a widely used NSAID, and while generally considered safer for longer use than ketorolac, it still carries a risk of renal impairment, particularly with prolonged use or in at-risk patients. Aspirin carries a unique and specific risk in children and adolescents recovering from viral illnesses (such as chickenpox or influenza) — its use in this population is linked to Reye syndrome, a rare but life-threatening condition affecting the liver and brain, making this its defining safety concern.
The nurse is reviewing medication orders for a patient prescribed ketorolac for postoperative pain. Which finding should cause the nurse to question the order?
-
Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)
-
History of peptic ulcer disease
-
Pain score of 7/10
-
Age 35 years
Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) History of peptic ulcer disease
Ketorolac is an NSAID that carries a significant risk of GI bleeding and ulceration due to its inhibition of prostaglandins that protect the stomach lining. A history of peptic ulcer disease is a major contraindication, as this medication could reactivate or worsen ulceration and precipitate a serious GI bleed.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. A temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) is essentially normal and does not raise any safety concerns regarding ketorolac administration.
C. A pain score of 7/10 simply indicates the patient is experiencing significant pain, which actually supports the appropriateness of an analgesic like ketorolac, rather than being a reason to question the order.
D. Age 35 is not a risk factor of concern for ketorolac use; this medication carries greater risk in older adults, not younger patients.
A nurse is administering hypotonic IV fluids. Which findings indicate a complication? (Select all that apply)
-
Increased blood pressure
-
Seizures
-
Decreased level of consciousness
-
Headache
-
Confusion
Explanation
Hypotonic IV fluids can cause fluid to shift out of the vascular space and into cells, including brain cells, leading to cerebral edema. This can manifest as headache, confusion, decreased level of consciousness, and seizures — all signs of increased intracranial pressure from cellular swelling, representing a serious complication requiring immediate intervention.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Increased blood pressure is not a typical complication of hypotonic fluid administration; hypotonic solutions actually reduce intravascular volume as fluid shifts out of the vascular space into the cells, which would be more likely to cause hypotension rather than hypertension.
The nurse is giving an intradermal (ID) injection and will choose which syringe for this injection?
-
This is an insulin syringe, calibrated in units (U-100) specifically for subcutaneous insulin administration, not appropriate for the precise small-volume dosing needed for an ID injection.
-
Tuberculin syringe
-
This is a large-capacity syringe (60 mL), designed for administering much larger volumes of fluid, such as for irrigation or large-volume medication administration, making it far too imprecise and oversized for an intradermal injection.
-
This is a standard 3 mL syringe with less precise gradations, typically used for intramuscular or subcutaneous injections requiring larger volumes than what's appropriate for accurate intradermal dosing.
Explanation
Intradermal injections require extremely precise, small volumes (typically 0.01–0.1 mL), such as for TB skin testing or allergy testing. The tuberculin syringe is designed specifically for this purpose, holding a maximum of 1 mL and featuring fine, detailed calibration markings (in increments of 0.01 mL) that allow for the accurate measurement of these very small doses.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. This is an insulin syringe, calibrated in units (U-100) specifically for subcutaneous insulin administration, not appropriate for the precise small-volume dosing needed for an ID injection.
C. This is a large-capacity syringe (60 mL), designed for administering much larger volumes of fluid, such as for irrigation or large-volume medication administration, making it far too imprecise and oversized for an intradermal injection.
D. This is a standard 3 mL syringe with less precise gradations, typically used for intramuscular or subcutaneous injections requiring larger volumes than what's appropriate for accurate intradermal dosing.
A patient receiving IV fluids suddenly develops dyspnea, anxiety, crackles, and distended neck veins. What is the nurse's priority action?
-
Encourage oral fluids.
-
Increase the infusion rate.
-
Stop or slow the IV infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
-
Place the patient flat in bed.
Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Assess the IV site.
Before taking any other action, the nurse must first assess the IV site to determine the cause of the pain (such as infiltration, phlebitis, or infection), since this assessment will guide the appropriate next steps and interventions.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Documentation is important but should occur after assessment, not as the priority action when a patient reports a new symptom requiring evaluation.
B. Stopping the IV fluids may ultimately be necessary depending on assessment findings, but assessing the site first is required to determine if this action is actually needed.
D. Starting a new IV site is premature without first assessing the current site to understand the cause of the pain and determine the appropriate course of action.
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .