ATI RN Leadership 2023

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Free ATI RN Leadership 2023 Questions

1.

A nurse in the emergency department is preparing to care for a client who arrived via ambulance. The client is disoriented and has a cardiac arrhythmia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  • Proceed with treatment without obtaining written consent.
  • Notify risk management before initiating treatment.
  • Have the client sign a consent for treatment.
  • Contact the client's next of kin to obtain consent for treatment.

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Proceed with treatment without obtaining written consent.
When a client is disoriented and unable to provide informed consent, and faces a life-threatening emergency such as a cardiac arrhythmia, implied consent applies. The law assumes that a reasonable person would consent to emergency treatment. Delaying care to obtain consent could result in serious harm or death.

B) Notifying risk management is not required before initiating emergency treatment — doing so would cause dangerous delays. C) A disoriented client lacks the capacity to provide valid informed consent. D) Contacting next of kin is appropriate when time permits in non-immediate situations, but in an acute emergency, treatment must begin immediately without waiting for surrogate consent.
2.

A nurse is caring for a client who received pain medication 1 hr ago and reports pain as 8 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

  • Ask the client what has helped relieve their pain in the past.
  • Obtain a prescription for additional pain medication.
  • Document the finding in the client's medical record.
  • Re-evaluate the client's pain status in 1 hr.

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Ask the client what has helped relieve their pain in the past.
When a client continues to report severe pain (8/10) after medication, the nurse should first perform a thorough pain assessment, which includes asking what has previously helped. This follows the nursing process — assess before intervening — and may reveal non-pharmacological comfort measures that can provide immediate relief while further pharmacological options are explored.
B) Obtaining a new prescription is premature without first completing a full pain assessment and exploring all available options. C) Documentation is important but is never the first clinical action. D) Re-evaluating in 1 hour is inappropriate when the client is reporting an 8/10 pain level — this requires immediate action, not delayed reassessment.
3. A charge nurse is observing a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assisting a client who has dysphagia while eating. Which of the following actions by the LPN should the charge nurse identify as providing safe care?
  • Placing food on the stronger side of the client's mouth

  • Instructing the client to hyperextend their neck when swallowing

  • Providing distractions during meals

  • Positioning the client at a 30° angle prior to eating

Explanation

Explanation
Placing food on the stronger, unaffected side of the client's mouth helps facilitate safer swallowing and reduces the risk of aspiration in a client who has dysphagia, making this an appropriate and safe nursing action.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. Hyperextending the neck during swallowing increases the risk of aspiration, as it can open the airway; clients with dysphagia are typically instructed to tuck their chin instead to protect the airway.
C. Providing distractions during meals is unsafe for a client with dysphagia, as the client needs to focus attention on the swallowing process to reduce the risk of aspiration.
D. A client with dysphagia should be positioned upright at a 90° angle, not a 30° angle, to minimize the risk of aspiration while eating.
4.

A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for four clients. Which of the following findings is the highest priority?

  • A client who has COPD and has an oxygen saturation of 90%
  • A client who had a cardiac catheterization whose capillary refill in the great toe is 4 seconds
  • A client who had a cholecystectomy 6 hr ago and is requesting pain medication
  • A client whose TPN was discontinued 4 hr ago and is requesting clear liquids

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: B) A client who had a cardiac catheterization whose capillary refill in the great toe is 4 seconds.
Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds following cardiac catheterization indicates impaired peripheral perfusion, which may signal arterial occlusion or thrombus formation at the catheter insertion site — a life-threatening vascular emergency requiring immediate assessment and intervention.

A) An O₂ sat of 90% in a COPD client, while concerning, is not uncommon as these clients typically have a lower baseline saturation and are monitored accordingly. B) takes priority due to the acute vascular compromise risk. C) Post-cholecystectomy pain is expected and important but not immediately life-threatening. D) A client requesting clear liquids after TPN discontinuation is a stable dietary transition need with no immediate safety concern.
5. A charge nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse about time management. Which of the following instructions should the charge nurse include?
  • Cluster client care to complete together.

  • Avoid using time estimates to plan tasks.

  • Delegate essential tasks to assistive personnel.

  • Schedule time twice per shift to complete documentation.

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Cluster client care to complete together.
Clustering client care activities, such as grouping assessments, medication administration, and other interventions together, is an effective time management strategy that minimizes unnecessary interruptions to the client and maximizes the nurse's efficiency throughout the shift.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. Using time estimates to plan tasks is an important and recommended time management strategy, not something to avoid, as it helps the nurse prioritize and organize the workload effectively.
C. Essential nursing tasks that require clinical judgment should not be delegated to assistive personnel; only appropriate, non-nursing tasks within their scope of practice should be delegated.
D. Documentation should be completed throughout the shift in a timely manner after each relevant task or assessment, rather than being saved and scheduled for only twice during the shift, to ensure accuracy and avoid errors from delayed charting.
6.

A nurse is preparing discharge planning for a client who has a newly placed tracheostomy tube. The nurse should assess the client's need for which of the following supplies to manage the tracheostomy at home? (Select all that apply.)

  • Pipe cleaners
  • Oxygen tank
  • Obturator
  • Cotton balls
  • Petroleum jelly

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Pipe cleaners, C) Obturator, and D) Cotton balls.
A) Pipe cleaners are used to clean the inner cannula of the tracheostomy tube, removing secretions and maintaining airway patency — an essential home care supply.
C) The obturator is a critical safety device that must be kept at the bedside at all times. It is used to reinsert the outer cannula if the tracheostomy tube becomes dislodged — a potentially life-saving tool.
D) Cotton balls or cotton-tipped applicators are used to clean the stoma site and surrounding skin as part of routine tracheostomy care.
7.

A nurse in a rehabilitation facility is preparing a discharge plan for a client who has paraplegia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

  • Recommend that the client adhere to a low-fiber diet.
  • Recommend that the client avoid the influenza vaccine.
  • Instruct the client to empty their bladder every 2 hr during the day.
  • Instruct the client to change positions every 3 hr when sitting in a chair.

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: C) Instruct the client to empty their bladder every 2 hr during the day.
Clients with paraplegia often have neurogenic bladder dysfunction and cannot sense the urge to urinate. Scheduled intermittent catheterization or timed voiding every 2 hours during the day prevents urinary retention, overdistension of the bladder, and urinary tract infections.
A) A high-fiber diet is recommended for paraplegic clients to prevent constipation due to decreased bowel motility — a low-fiber diet would worsen this issue. B) The influenza vaccine is recommended for clients with paraplegia as they are at higher risk for respiratory complications. D) Clients should reposition every 15 to 30 minutes when sitting in a chair — every 3 hours is far too long and places the client at high risk for pressure injuries.
8. A case manager is coordinating interdisciplinary referrals for a client who has myasthenia gravis. The case manager should consult an occupational therapist to teach the client and his family about which of the following issues?
  • Performing oral suctioning

  • Applying pressure injury boots

  • Performing hygiene and grooming

  • Recognizing manifestations of dysphagia

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Performing hygiene and grooming
Occupational therapy focuses on helping clients adapt to and perform activities of daily living, such as hygiene and grooming, making this the appropriate area of teaching for an occupational therapist to address with a client who has myasthenia gravis and his family.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Performing oral suctioning is a clinical skill typically taught and performed by nursing or respiratory therapy staff, not occupational therapy.
B. Applying pressure injury prevention boots is a nursing intervention related to skin integrity and immobility, not a focus of occupational therapy teaching.
D. Recognizing manifestations of dysphagia falls within the scope of speech-language pathology, which specializes in swallowing assessment and management, rather than occupational therapy.
9. A nurse manager is working on a medical-surgical unit. Select the 2 situations the nurse manager should identify as the priority.

Situation 1 — 0730: Staff nurse arrived 30 min late for shift. This is the 3rd time the nurse has been tardy in the past month.

Situation 2 — 0800: Client's visitor fell in client's room and hit head on door frame. Client reports visitor had a temporary loss of consciousness.

Situation 4 — 0755: Client refusing to eat breakfast. Provided with graham crackers, an apple, milk, and coffee. 0805: Client requesting to speak to a supervisor regarding quality of food.

Situation 5 — 0700: Scheduled insulin administered. Client up to bathroom with standby assist. 0725: Client diaphoretic, speech slurred.

  • Situation 1 — 0730: Staff nurse arrived 30 min late for shift. This is the 3rd time the nurse has been tardy in the past month.
  • Situation 2 — 0800: Client's visitor fell in client's room and hit head on door frame. Client reports visitor had a temporary loss of consciousness.
  • Situation 4 — 0755: Client refusing to eat breakfast. Provided with graham crackers, an apple, milk, and coffee. 0805: Client requesting to speak to a supervisor regarding quality of food.
  • Situation 5 — 0700: Scheduled insulin administered. Client up to bathroom with standby assist. 0725: Client diaphoretic, speech slurred.

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: Situation 2 and Situation 5
Situation 5 is a priority because diaphoresis and slurred speech following insulin administration are classic signs of hypoglycemia, a potentially life-threatening emergency that requires immediate assessment and intervention (such as checking blood glucose and providing rapid-acting carbohydrates). Situation 2 is a priority because a visitor with a temporary loss of consciousness after a head injury requires immediate assessment, as this could indicate a serious head injury or underlying medical event needing urgent evaluation and possible emergency response.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Situation 1: Staff tardiness is a performance and attendance issue that needs to be addressed, but it is not a clinical emergency and can be handled through standard disciplinary or coaching processes after immediate client safety concerns are managed.
Situation 4: A client refusing breakfast or requesting to speak with a supervisor about food quality are service and satisfaction concerns. While they should be addressed, they do not pose an immediate threat to safety or wellbeing.
10.

A charge nurse overhears a staff nurse discussing a client's diagnosis in the cafeteria. Which of the following responses should the charge nurse make?

  • "Please stop discussing the client in a public area."
  • "Do you understand the HIPAA regulations?"
  • "We should discuss your concerns with the client's care team."
  • "I will need to notify the client's provider about this breach of confidentiality."

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: A) "Please stop discussing the client in a public area."
The immediate priority is to stop the confidentiality breach as it is actively occurring. Directly and professionally asking the nurse to stop discussing the client in a public area is the most appropriate first response — it addresses the behavior in real time and prevents further disclosure.

B) Questioning whether the nurse understands HIPAA is confrontational and does not immediately stop the breach. C) Discussing concerns with the care team is irrelevant to this situation — there is no care team concern, this is a confidentiality violation. D) Notifying the provider is not necessary or appropriate — this is a staff conduct issue managed by the charge nurse and nurse manager, not the client's provider.

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