NUR 325 Nursing Services Childbearing Family at CBU
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Free NUR 325 Nursing Services Childbearing Family at CBU Questions
A G1 P0 39-week gestation patient presents in active labor. She is GBS positive at 36 weeks. What medication does the nurse anticipate giving
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Pitocin
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Azithromycin
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Penicillin G
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Magnesium Sulfate
Explanation
Correct Answer C: Penicillin G
C. Penicillin G
Penicillin G is the recommended antibiotic for Group B Streptococcus (GBS) prophylaxis during labor to reduce the risk of neonatal GBS infection, which can lead to sepsis, pneumonia, or meningitis. It is typically administered every 4 hours during labor until delivery.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Pitocin
Pitocin is used to induce or augment labor, not to prevent GBS transmission.
B. Azithromycin
Azithromycin is not the first-line treatment for GBS prophylaxis. It may be used for other infections or in specific allergy cases, but not as standard care for GBS.
D. Magnesium Sulfate
Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia or to provide neuroprotection in preterm labor, not for GBS management.
A client tells the nurse she is to have a cerclage and wants to know why the doctor is going to do this. The nurse provides education about a cerclage. Which statement indicates teaching needs to be reinforced
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A cerclage is a suture placed on the cervix.
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A cerclage will prevent preterm labor.
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A cerclage is done to help prevent the cervix from dilating too early.
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A cerclage is done because I have had spontaneous abortions in the past because my cervix opened too early
Explanation
Correct Answer B: A cerclage will prevent preterm labor.
Explanatiom:
B. A cerclage will prevent preterm labor.
This statement indicates a misunderstanding. A cerclage is used to prevent cervical insufficiency, which can lead to painless cervical dilation and second-trimester losses. However, it does not prevent preterm labor, which involves uterine contractions and other physiological processes beyond just cervical weakness.
Why the Other Options Are Correct:
A. A cerclage is a suture placed on the cervix.
This is accurate. A cerclage involves placing a stitch around the cervix to reinforce it and prevent premature opening.
C. A cerclage is done to help prevent the cervix from dilating too early.
Correct. The goal of cerclage is to mechanically support the cervix and delay or prevent early dilation.
D. A cerclage is done because I have had spontaneous abortions in the past because my cervix opened too early.
Correct. A history of painless cervical dilation leading to mid-trimester pregnancy losses is a key indication for a cerclage.
The nurse is caring for a woman hospitalized for hyperemesis gravidarum. Which would be the most appropriate intervention for this patient
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Total parenteral nutrition or IV hydration.
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A high protein diet rich in kilocalories.
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A 24-hour urine collection to check for protein.
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Fasting blood sugar and one hour postprandial.
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Total parenteral nutrition or IV hydration.
Explanation:
A. Total parenteral nutrition or IV hydration.
Hyperemesis gravidarum involves severe, persistent nausea and vomiting, often leading to dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and nutritional deficiencies. The most appropriate initial intervention is IV hydration to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances. In severe or prolonged cases where oral intake is not possible, total parenteral nutrition (TPN) may be required.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. A high protein diet rich in kilocalories.
This may be appropriate once the patient is stabilized, but during the acute phase of hyperemesis, the patient is often unable to tolerate oral intake.
C. A 24-hour urine collection to check for protein.
This is used to screen for preeclampsia, not to manage hyperemesis gravidarum.
D. Fasting blood sugar and one hour postprandial.
These tests assess for gestational diabetes and are unrelated to the management of hyperemesis gravidarum.
The nurse is giving a lecture on violence against women. The nurse knows teaching needs to be reinforced when a woman states which of the following
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Domestic violence affects 1 in 4 women.
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Abuse often decreases during pregnancy.
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A woman's greatest risk for homicide is during separation or attempts to separate.
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Abused women often willingly go back to the abusers
Explanation
Correct Answer B: Abuse often decreases during pregnancy.
Explanation:
This statement is incorrect and indicates a misunderstanding that needs clarification. Abuse often begins or intensifies during pregnancy, putting both the woman and fetus at serious risk. Pregnancy is a known risk factor for increased domestic violence, not a protective time.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Domestic violence affects 1 in 4 women.
This is accurate. Research shows that approximately 1 in 4 women experience intimate partner violence during their lifetime.
C. A woman's greatest ri sk for homicide is during separation or attempts to separate.
This is true. The risk of lethal violence often spikes when a woman tries to leave or separate from an abusive partner.
D. Abused women often willingly go back to the abusers.
This reflects a complex reality, often tied to fear, economic dependency, emotional manipulation, or lack of support. It is not a knowledge error but rather a recognition of the psychological and social dynamics involved.
- Blastocyst
- Embryo
- Zygote
- Fetus
Explanation
- BP 88/56
- Ruptured membranes
- Temperature 101°F
- Pulse 122
Explanation
- 3 lbs per week for each week of pregnancy
- 35–40 lbs throughout the entire pregnancy
- 15–20 lbs throughout the entire pregnancy
- Less than 1 lb per week for each week of pregnancy
Explanation
The nurse teaches her postpartum patient the rationale for urinating every two hours while awake. The nurse knows the patient understood when the patient states that overdistension of the bladder and urinary retention can often lead to
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Postpartum hemorrhage and hematoma formation.
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Fever and foul smelling lochia.
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Postpartum hemorrhage and urinary tract infection.
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Urinary tract infection and uterine involution.
Explanation
Correct Answer C: Postpartum hemorrhage and urinary tract infection
Explanation:
C. Postpartum hemorrhage and urinary tract infection
A distended bladder can displace the uterus, preventing it from contracting effectively, which increases the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Additionally, urinary stasis due to retention promotes bacterial growth, leading to urinary tract infections. Encouraging regular urination helps prevent both complications.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Postpartum hemorrhage and hematoma formation
While bladder distention can lead to hemorrhage, it is not a typical cause of hematomas, which are usually due to birth trauma or vascular injury.
B. Fever and foul smelling lochia
These symptoms suggest infection, but bladder distention is not a direct cause of foul-smelling lochia or uterine infection.
D. Urinary tract infection and uterine involution
Uterine involution refers to the uterus shrinking back to pre-pregnancy size, which can be delayed by bladder distention, but this choice pairs an infection with a normal physiological process, making it an imprecise statement.
- Infection: At risk for
- Alteration in comfort: Dysmenorrhea
- Incontinence: Functional urinary
- Constipation: At risk for
Explanation
- Tachysystole
- Tachycardia with minimal variability
- Late decelerations with absent variability
- Sinusoidal pattern
- Absent variability with no periodic changes
- Bradycardia with absent variability
- Late decelerations with moderate variability
- Variable decelerations with absent variability
Explanation
This pattern indicates uteroplacental insufficiency and severe fetal hypoxia. The lack of variability suggests the fetus cannot compensate, making this an emergency situation requiring immediate intervention, often expedited delivery.
D. Sinusoidal pattern:
A true sinusoidal pattern reflects severe fetal anemia or hypoxia and is a hallmark of Category 3 tracing. It indicates a nonreassuring fetal status and necessitates urgent evaluation and possible delivery.
E. Absent variability with no periodic changes:
Absent variability means the fetal heart rate lacks fluctuations, showing no sympathetic or parasympathetic response. When no accelerations or decelerations are present, it signals significant fetal compromise.
F. Bradycardia with absent variability:
A persistently low fetal heart rate combined with absent variability indicates severe hypoxia and possible acidosis. This is a medical emergency requiring prompt intrauterine resuscitation and likely immediate delivery to prevent fetal demise.
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