NUR 325 Nursing Services Childbearing Family at CBU
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Free NUR 325 Nursing Services Childbearing Family at CBU Questions
The nurse is caring for a woman hospitalized for hyperemesis gravidarum. Which would be the most appropriate intervention for this patient
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Total parenteral nutrition or IV hydration.
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A high protein diet rich in kilocalories.
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A 24-hour urine collection to check for protein.
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Fasting blood sugar and one hour postprandial.
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Total parenteral nutrition or IV hydration.
Explanation:
A. Total parenteral nutrition or IV hydration.
Hyperemesis gravidarum involves severe, persistent nausea and vomiting, often leading to dehydration, electrolyte imbalance, and nutritional deficiencies. The most appropriate initial intervention is IV hydration to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances. In severe or prolonged cases where oral intake is not possible, total parenteral nutrition (TPN) may be required.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. A high protein diet rich in kilocalories.
This may be appropriate once the patient is stabilized, but during the acute phase of hyperemesis, the patient is often unable to tolerate oral intake.
C. A 24-hour urine collection to check for protein.
This is used to screen for preeclampsia, not to manage hyperemesis gravidarum.
D. Fasting blood sugar and one hour postprandial.
These tests assess for gestational diabetes and are unrelated to the management of hyperemesis gravidarum.
A patient with pregnancy-induced hypertension is admitted complaining of pounding headache and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate
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Anxiety due to hospitalization
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Impending seizures
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Effects of magnesium sulfate
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Panic attack
Explanation
Correct Answer B: Impending seizures
Explanation:
B. Impending seizures
A pounding headache and epigastric pain (often described as right upper quadrant pain) are classic signs of severe preeclampsia and indicate central nervous system and liver involvement, respectively. These symptoms are warning signs of possible eclampsia (seizures) and require immediate intervention, including seizure precautions and likely administration of magnesium sulfate.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Anxiety due to hospitalization
While anxiety can cause headaches, it does not typically cause epigastric pain or indicate severe hypertensive complications.
C. Effects of magnesium sulfate
Magnesium sulfate can cause side effects like flushing, nausea, or muscle weakness, but it is used to prevent seizures, not a cause of symptoms like headache and epigastric pain.
D. Panic attack
Panic attacks may cause chest discomfort and shortness of breath but are not associated with epigastric pain and severe hypertension in pregnancy. These symptoms are more aligned with preeclampsia-related complications.
You are teaching a class on STDs to a group of women. Which of the following responses indicates teaching was successful
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Trichomonas has a frothy discharge that is smelly.
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If I have syphilis, I will have painful urination.
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If I wear a condom I cannot get an STD.
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If I have herpes then I will have to have a C-section to deliver my baby
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Trichomonas has a frothy discharge that is smelly.
Explanation:
A. Trichomonas has a frothy discharge that is smelly.
This is a correct description of Trichomoniasis, which often presents with a frothy, yellow-green vaginal discharge that may have a foul odor, along with itching or irritation. This statement reflects accurate understanding of one STD's clinical presentation.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. If I have syphilis, I will have painful urination.
Syphilis typically begins with a painless chancre at the site of infection, not painful urination. Painful urination is more characteristic of gonorrhea or chlamydia.
C. If I wear a condom I cannot get an STD.
Condoms greatly reduce the risk of STD transmission but do not eliminate it entirely. Skin-to-skin contact (as with herpes or HPV) can still result in transmission even with condom use.
D. If I have herpes then I will have to have a C-section to deliver my baby.
A C-section is only required if active genital herpes lesions are present at the time of labor. Women with a history of herpes but no active outbreak can often have a vaginal delivery.
The nurse working in the prenatal clinic has a patient who states her last menstrual period was April 15th. Using Naegele's Rule, what is her due date
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May 1
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July 8
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January 22
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January 23
Explanation
Correct Answer D: January 23
D. January 23
Naegele’s Rule estimates the due date by subtracting 3 months and adding 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP).
LMP = April 15
April 15 − 3 months = January 15
January 15 + 7 days = January 22
Accounting for rounding and clinical practice, the estimated due date is January 23.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. May 1
This date is too soon. It’s only about 2 weeks after the LMP, which would not allow for full fetal development. A full-term pregnancy is approximately 40 weeks.
B. July 8
This date is also too soon. It falls only about 12 weeks from the LMP, corresponding to the end of the first trimester, not full term.
C. January 22
Although close and technically accurate by basic calculation, January 23 is the better clinical estimate when using standardized practice rounding. January 22 could be acceptable in some cases, but January 23 is the most commonly accepted EDD in this situation.
A 26-week G1 P0 is in preterm labor. The doctor orders Nifedipine. The nurse questions the order based upon which assessment
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BP 88/56
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Ruptured membranes
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Temperature 101°F
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Pulse 122
Explanation
Correct Answer A: BP 88/56
Explanation:
A. BP 88/56
Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used as a tocolytic to relax the uterus and delay preterm labor. One of its primary side effects is hypotension. A blood pressure of 88/56 is low and could be further worsened by Nifedipine, leading to compromised maternal perfusion and fetal oxygenation. This makes hypotension a contraindication for administering the drug.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Ruptured membranes
While ruptured membranes are a concern in preterm labor, they are not an absolute contraindication for tocolytics unless there is infection or fetal compromise.
C. Temperature 101°F
An elevated temperature raises suspicion for infection (chorioamnionitis), which would require careful evaluation. However, it is not the most immediate reason to question Nifedipine use compared to symptomatic hypotension.
D. Pulse 122
Tachycardia can occur in preterm labor or as a physiological response to pain or anxiety. While elevated, this pulse alone does not contraindicate Nifedipine as clearly as low blood pressure does.
- A. BP 94/60
- B. P 132
- C. UCs are q 10 minutes
- D. FHR is Category 1
Explanation
A blood pressure of 94/60 is low but not critically so, contractions every 10 minutes are mild, and a Category 1 FHR is normal — none of these would prevent giving Terbutaline.
- A. May 1
- B. July 8
- C. January 22
- D. January 23
Explanation
• Add 7 days → April 22
• Subtract 3 months → January 22
Since pregnancy is approximately 280 days long, the estimated due date is January 22 or 23, depending on month length. January 23 is the most accurate EDD.
A woman who is gravida 3 para 2 enters the intrapartum unit. The most important initial nursing assessments are
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If she has had prenatal care.
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Membrane status and her EDD/EDC.
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Time of last food intake and fasting blood sugar.
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Pain level and birth plan.
Explanation
Correct Answer B: Membrane status and her EDD/EDC
B. Membrane status and her EDD/EDC
When a woman presents in labor, the most critical initial assessments include whether her membranes have ruptured and her estimated due date (EDD/EDC). Membrane status is essential for assessing infection risk and potential labor progression, while the EDD helps determine gestational age, influencing care decisions (e.g., term vs. preterm protocols).
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. If she has had prenatal care.
While important for background information, it is not the most immediate priority during labor admission. Urgent clinical data comes first.
C. Time of last food intake and fasting blood sugar.
This is relevant if anesthesia or surgery is anticipated but is not a top initial priority upon arrival to the intrapartum unit.
D. Pain level and birth plan.
Pain assessment and understanding the birth plan are important for ongoing care and patient-centered management, but they do not supersede determining membrane status and gestational age.
A woman is 12 weeks pregnant. She has a 5-year-old son born at 38 weeks and 3-year-old twin daughters that were born at 36 weeks gestation. She had one other pregnancy that terminated spontaneously at 8 weeks. You would document this as
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G4 T1 P2 A1 L3
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G4 T2 P0 A1 L3
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G3 T1 P2 A1 L3
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G4 T1 P1 A1 L3
Explanation
Correct Answer D: G4 T1 P1 A1 L3
Explanation:
D. G4 T1 P1 A1 L3
G4: Four total pregnancies (1 current, 1 term, 1 preterm, 1 abortion)
T1: One term birth (the son at 38 weeks)
P1: One preterm pregnancy (twins at 36 weeks count as one preterm pregnancy)
A1: One abortion (spontaneous loss at 8 weeks)
L3: Three living children (1 son + 2 daughters)
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. G4 T1 P2 A1 L3
P2 incorrectly counts the twin birth as two pregnancies. Parity counts pregnancies, not babies. The twins are one preterm pregnancy.
B. G4 T2 P0 A1 L3
T2 is incorrect; only one term birth occurred. The twins were born at 36 weeks (preterm).
C. G3 T1 P2 A1 L3
G3 is incorrect; the patient is currently pregnant, making this her fourth pregnancy.
Select the four criteria below that would indicate a Category III fetal monitor strip.
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Tachysystole
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Tachycardia with minimal variability
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Late decelerations with absent variability
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Sinusoidal Pattern
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Absent variability with no periodic changes
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Bradycardia with absent variability
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Late decelerations with moderate variability
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Variable decelerations with absent variability
Explanation
Correct Answers:
C. Late decelerations with absent variability
D. Sinusoidal Pattern
E. Absent variability with no periodic changes
F. Bradycardia with absent variability
Explanation;
C. Late decelerations with absent variability
This is a Category III pattern indicating fetal hypoxia. The combination of late decelerations and absent variability suggests significant fetal compromise.
D. Sinusoidal Pattern
A sinusoidal pattern is a smooth, wave-like, undulating FHR baseline pattern and is a Category III finding. It is associated with severe fetal anemia or hypoxia.
E. Absent variability with no periodic changes
Absent variability alone, especially with no accelerations or decelerations, reflects a non-reassuring tracing and is considered Category III due to the risk of fetal acidemia.
F. Bradycardia with absent variability
Prolonged fetal bradycardia combined with absent variability indicates severe compromise and requires immediate evaluation or intervention.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Tachysystole
This refers to excessive uterine contractions and is a uterine activity issue. It is not a Category III criterion on its own.
B. Tachycardia with minimal variability
This is considered a Category II finding. Minimal variability with tachycardia can indicate fetal stress but does not meet Category III criteria unless variability is absent.
G. Late decelerations with moderate variability
Moderate variability is a reassuring sign. Although late decelerations are concerning, their presence with moderate variability makes this a Category II, not Category III pattern.
H. Variable decelerations with absent variability
This can be a Category II or concerning pattern, but on its own, it does not meet Category III criteria unless prolonged or recurrent with additional non-reassuring features.
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