NURS336 Exam 3 Collab change delegation conflict
Access The Exact Questions for NURS336 Exam 3 Collab change delegation conflict
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock Actual Exam Questions and Answers for NURS336 Exam 3 Collab change delegation conflict on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Ace Your Test with NURS336 Exam 3 Collab change delegation conflict Actual Questions and Solutions - Full Set
Free NURS336 Exam 3 Collab change delegation conflict Questions
-
Involvement in an area of practice that is regulated.
-
Continuous employment in the same area for 20 years.
-
Employment in short-term contract jobs in business, nursing, and whatever is available.
-
Moving into and out of nursing positions in various cities.
Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Involvement in an area of practice that is regulated
A career is defined as a chosen professional path within a regulated field that involves specialized knowledge, ongoing development, and professional accountability. In nursing, a career is grounded in a regulated scope of practice governed by licensure, standards of care, and professional ethics. This definition distinguishes a career from a series of jobs or employment patterns.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
B. Continuous employment in the same area for 20 years Staying in the same position for an extended period of time describes job tenure, not necessarily a career. A career involves professional growth, development, and advancement, not simply longevity in one area.
C. Employment in short-term contract jobs in business, nursing, and whatever is available This describes a series of disconnected jobs across different fields, which does not reflect the focused, progressive nature of a professional career. A career implies direction, specialization, and development within a chosen field.
D. Moving into and out of nursing positions in various cities This describes geographic mobility and job changes rather than a purposeful career trajectory. While nurses may work in different locations, a career is defined by professional development and specialization, not by the number of positions or cities worked in.
-
Develop policies consistent with the nurse manager's prior workplace.
-
Attend a workshop on how to deal with difficult people.
-
Schedule a series of meetings with staff and the administrator to clarify.
-
Decide to give the position three more months and then leave if things do not improve.
Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Schedule a series of meetings with staff and the administrator to clarify
The core issue is a lack of clarity and alignment regarding role expectations between the nurse manager, the charge nurse, and the administrator. Scheduling structured meetings with both staff and administration creates an open, professional forum to clarify expectations, establish shared priorities, and negotiate a workable balance between administrative responsibilities and clinical availability. This demonstrates proactive leadership and effective communication, which are essential components of successful role transition.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Develop policies consistent with the nurse manager's prior workplace Each healthcare institution has its own culture, policies, and operational needs. Applying policies from a prior workplace without adapting to the current institution's context is inappropriate and may conflict with existing facility standards and values.
B. Attend a workshop on how to deal with difficult people The issue is not about interpersonal conflict management but about role clarity and time allocation. Attending a workshop on difficult people misidentifies the problem and does not address the structural and communication gaps causing the tension.
D. Decide to give the position three more months and then leave if things do not improve Adopting a passive wait-and-see approach with a predetermined exit plan is not a leadership strategy. It avoids the problem rather than addressing it and would not resolve the underlying issues of role ambiguity and staff concern.
Explanation
Correct Answer: 4 mcg/min
Step 1 — Convert mg to mcg: 4 mg = 4,000 mcg
Step 2 — Find the concentration in mcg/mL: 4,000 mcg/250 mL = 16 mcg/mL
Step 3 — Calculate mcg/hr: 15 mL/hr × 16 mcg/mL = 240 mcg/hr
Step 4 — Convert to mcg/min: 240 mcg/hr ÷ 60 min = 4 mcg/min
A. "It means providing the most expensive treatments available."
B. "It focuses on meeting each patient's needs safely and effectively."
C. "It is care that meets minimum legal standards."
D. "It means following the doctor's orders exactly as written."
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (B) "It focuses on meeting each patient's needs safely and effectively."
Quality care is defined as care that is safe, effective, patient-centered, timely, efficient, and equitable. It prioritizes meeting the individual needs of each patient while ensuring their safety and achieving effective health outcomes, which is exactly what option B describes.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. "It means providing the most expensive treatments available." — Cost does not determine quality. Expensive treatments may not always be the most appropriate or effective for a given patient.
C. "It is care that meets minimum legal standards." — Quality care goes far beyond legal minimums. Simply avoiding legal violations does not constitute high-quality, patient-centered care.
D. "It means following the doctor's orders exactly as written." — While following prescriptions is important, quality care also requires critical thinking, patient advocacy, and holistic assessment that extends beyond simply executing orders.
- "It means providing the most expensive treatments available."
- "It focuses on meeting each patient's needs safely and effectively."
- "It is care that meets minimum legal standards."
- "It means following the doctor's orders exactly as written."
Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) "It focuses on meeting each patient's needs safely and effectively."
Quality care is defined as care that is safe, effective, patient-centered, timely, efficient, and equitable. It prioritizes meeting the individual needs of each patient while ensuring their safety and achieving effective health outcomes, which is exactly what option B describes.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. "It means providing the most expensive treatments available." — Cost does not determine quality. Expensive treatments may not always be the most appropriate or effective for a given patient.
C. "It is care that meets minimum legal standards." — Quality care goes far beyond legal minimums. Simply avoiding legal violations does not constitute high-quality, patient-centered care.
D. "It means following the doctor's orders exactly as written." — While following prescriptions is important, quality care also requires critical thinking, patient advocacy, and holistic assessment that extends beyond simply executing orders.
-
Sends the PCA to ask if the patient is having dizziness
-
Writes down what the patient says, avoids eye contact, and tells the patient they will be alright
-
Utilizes open-ended questions to elicit more information
-
Turns away from the patient as the patient describes symptoms to the nurse
Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Utilizes open-ended questions to elicit more information
Open-ended questions are the most therapeutic communication technique for eliciting detailed information during a patient interview. They invite the patient to describe their experience in their own words without being led or restricted to yes or no answers. This approach encourages the patient to expand on their symptoms, concerns, and precipitating factors, providing the nurse with richer and more clinically relevant information.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Sends the PCA to ask if the patient is having dizziness Delegating the therapeutic interview to a PCA is inappropriate. Gathering detailed symptom history, including precipitating factors for vertigo, requires nursing assessment skills and is not within the scope of a patient care assistant.
B. Writes down what the patient says, avoids eye contact, and tells the patient they will be alright Avoiding eye contact and offering false reassurance are non-therapeutic communication behaviors. They signal disengagement, reduce trust, and do not encourage the patient to openly share their experience.
D. Turns away from the patient as the patient describes symptoms to the nurse Turning away from the patient during the interview communicates disinterest and disrespect. Non-verbal communication such as body orientation is a critical component of therapeutic interaction, and turning away undermines the nurse-patient relationship.
-
Data Collector
-
Process manager
-
Team member
-
Change Agent
-
Stake Holder
-
Community Leader
Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Data Collector, (B) Process manager, (C) Team member, (D) Change Agent, (E) Stake Holder, and (F) Community Leader
The Change Acceleration Process (CAP) is a framework that requires the nurse manager to take on multiple roles simultaneously to drive and sustain change effectively. All of the listed roles are recognized within CAP as functions a nurse manager may fulfill when leading staff through organizational change.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
All options are correct in this context. The Change Acceleration Process is comprehensive and encompasses a wide range of leadership roles, making all of the above applicable.
Which members of the interdisciplinary team should the nurse anticipate being included in the plan of care? Select all that apply.
-
Radiologist
-
Speech Therapist
-
Gastroenterologist
-
Pharmacist
-
Registered Dietitian
-
Occupational Therapist
-
Physical Therapist
Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Radiologist, (C) Gastroenterologist, (D) Pharmacist, and (E) Registered Dietitian
Each of these team members is directly indicated by the provider prescriptions and the patient's clinical presentation.
The Radiologist is needed to perform and interpret the MRE (magnetic resonance enterography) of the pelvis and abdomen ordered in the prescriptions. The Gastroenterologist is essential given the gastrointestinal evaluation ordered and the complexity of managing an active Crohn's disease exacerbation with perianal abscess. The Pharmacist plays a critical role in managing corticosteroids, immunosuppressive therapies, and ensuring safe medication administration and counseling. The Registered Dietitian is necessary given the prescription for nutritional screening and management, as the patient is unable to keep food down and is at risk for malnutrition.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
B. Speech Therapist — Speech therapy is typically indicated for swallowing difficulties, communication disorders, or cognitive-linguistic issues, none of which are present or prescribed in this case.
F. Occupational Therapist — Occupational therapy focuses on helping patients perform activities of daily living, which is not a priority concern identified in this patient's current presentation or prescriptions.
G. Physical Therapist — While physical therapy may be considered later in recovery, there is no current indication in the prescriptions or assessment findings that necessitates physical therapy at this stage of care.
-
Stimulant laxative to a patient who has not had a bowel movement in 3 days.
-
Intravenous (IV) proton-pump inhibitor medication to a patient who is nothing by mouth (NPO).
-
Rapid acting insulin to a patient who has breakfast tray in the room.
-
Loop diuretic to a patient with a potassium (K+) level of 3.2 mEq/L.
Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Rapid acting insulin to a patient who has breakfast tray in the room
Rapid acting insulin must be administered immediately before or at the time of meal consumption. The patient already has their breakfast tray in the room, meaning they are about to eat. Delaying rapid acting insulin while the patient consumes food can result in dangerous postprandial hyperglycemia. Timely administration is critical for glycemic control and patient safety.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Stimulant laxative to a patient who has not had a bowel movement in 3 days While three days without a bowel movement is a concern, it is not an immediately life-threatening situation. This medication can safely be administered after the more time-sensitive insulin is given.
B. Intravenous proton-pump inhibitor medication to a patient who is NPO While IV medications for NPO patients are important, the proton-pump inhibitor does not carry the same immediate time-sensitive risk as rapid acting insulin given in the presence of an active meal. It can follow once the insulin is administered.
D. Loop diuretic to a patient with a potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, and administering a loop diuretic would further lower potassium levels, worsening the electrolyte imbalance. This finding should be reported to the provider before administering the diuretic, and it does not take priority over time-sensitive insulin administration.
-
Write a prescription for the patient's medications.
-
Perform nursing skills for the patient such as dressing changes.
-
Arrange for the patient to receive home health services.
-
Provide education to the patient about adverse effects of their medications.
Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Arrange for the patient to receive home health services
A core responsibility of case management is coordinating and arranging post-acute and community-based services to ensure continuity of care following discharge. Arranging home health services involves assessing the patient's needs, identifying appropriate resources, and facilitating the connection between the patient and community services to support safe and effective recovery at home.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Write a prescription for the patient's medications Writing prescriptions is within the scope of practice of licensed prescribers such as physicians, nurse practitioners, and physician assistants. Case managers do not have prescriptive authority and cannot write medication prescriptions.
B. Perform nursing skills for the patient such as dressing changes Performing hands-on clinical nursing skills such as dressing changes is the responsibility of the bedside or home health nurse providing direct patient care, not the case manager. Case managers coordinate care rather than provide direct clinical interventions.
D. Provide education to the patient about adverse effects of their medications Medication education is a direct nursing responsibility that belongs to the bedside nurse or the pharmacist. While case managers may reinforce general discharge instructions, detailed medication adverse effect teaching is not their primary role.
-
Reviewing patient outcomes
-
Analyzing resource utilization
-
Conducting debriefing sessions with staff
-
Assessing community feedback
Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Reviewing patient outcomes
Reviewing patient outcomes is the most critical action when evaluating the effectiveness of a disaster response because it directly measures whether the response achieved its primary goal of protecting life, minimizing harm, and providing adequate care to those affected. Patient outcomes such as mortality rates, complication rates, and timely treatment delivery provide objective, measurable evidence of how well the disaster response functioned.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
B. Analyzing resource utilization While analyzing resource utilization is an important component of disaster evaluation, it is a process measure rather than an outcome measure. Resources could be used efficiently yet still result in poor patient outcomes if the response strategy was flawed.
C. Conducting debriefing sessions with staff Staff debriefing is valuable for identifying communication breakdowns, improving future protocols, and supporting staff well-being. However, it is a process improvement tool, not the most direct measure of whether the disaster response was effective in protecting patient health.
D. Assessing community feedback Community feedback provides valuable insight into public perception and unmet needs, but it is subjective and less clinically precise than patient outcome data for evaluating the effectiveness of a health system's disaster response.
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .