NURS 510 Nursing Research Methods
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Free NURS 510 Nursing Research Methods Questions
The nurse is teaching a client about their medications for a psychological disorder. Which statement should not be included in the client education?
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Renal disease may impact drug choice and dose in some clients.
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These medications have the risk for cytochrome P450 interactions that impact the action of the medication.
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Psychopharmacological medications have similar dosing across all age groups.
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Hepatic disease can impact dose.
Explanation
Correct Answer: C) Psychopharmacological medications have similar dosing across all age groups.
Explanation:
C) Psychopharmacological medications have similar dosing across all age groups is not accurate and should not be included in client education. Age significantly affects drug metabolism and clearance, especially in older adults and children. Older adults often require lower doses due to reduced liver and kidney function, altered body composition, and increased sensitivity to drug effects. Children also require carefully adjusted dosages based on age and weight.
Why the other options are correct:
A) Renal disease may impact drug choice and dose in some clients:
Correct. Renal impairment affects drug elimination, requiring dose adjustments to prevent accumulation and toxicity.
B) These medications have the risk for cytochrome P450 interactions that impact the action of the medication:
Correct. Many psych meds are metabolized by liver enzymes, especially the CYP450 system, and may have drug-drug interactions that alter effectiveness or increase side effects.
D) Hepatic disease can impact dose:
Correct. The liver metabolizes most psychotropic drugs. If liver function is impaired, drug levels can accumulate, necessitating dose reductions or alternative medications.
Prednisone is an oral corticosteroid that has less mineralocorticoid activity than other oral steroids. What does the nurse expect when giving this medication?
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It will cause less extreme hyperglycemia
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It will cause less sodium and water retention
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It will cause more sodium retention and less water retention
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It will cause more extreme hyperglycemia
Explanation
Correct Answer: B) It will cause less sodium and water retention
Explanation:
Mineralocorticoid activity refers to a steroid's ability to influence sodium and water balance through the kidneys, similar to the hormone aldosterone. Because prednisone has relatively low mineralocorticoid activity, it is less likely to cause fluid retention, edema, or hypertension than corticosteroids with higher mineralocorticoid effects, such as fludrocortisone.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) It will cause less extreme hyperglycemia:
Prednisone still has strong glucocorticoid (glucose-raising) effects, so it can significantly raise blood sugar, especially in diabetics.
C) It will cause more sodium retention and less water retention:
Sodium retention leads to water retention, so this combination is physiologically inconsistent.
D) It will cause more extreme hyperglycemia:
While prednisone can cause hyperglycemia, the question specifically refers to mineralocorticoid activity, not glucocorticoid (blood sugar–related) effects.
The client is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes and has been prescribed an oral hypoglycemic medication. The client calls the clinic and tells the nurse that the sclera of the eye is yellow, like the pictures of jaundice. Which intervention by the nurse is most important?
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Ask the client if they have been exposed to tuberculosis.
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Ask the client if they have been exposed to someone with cirrhosis or hepatitis.
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The client needs an appointment with the health care provider to evaluate this further.
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See if the client is taking the cardiac glycoside digoxin as prescribed.
Explanation
Correct Answer: C) The client needs an appointment with the health care provider to evaluate this further.
Explanation:
Yellowing of the sclera is a sign of jaundice, which may indicate liver dysfunction. Several oral hypoglycemic medications (such as metformin, sulfonylureas, or thiazolidinediones) can potentially cause hepatotoxicity or liver inflammation. Because liver injury can progress if untreated, the nurse’s most important intervention is to urgently refer the client to the health care provider for further evaluation, including liver function tests and assessment of medication-related side effects.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Ask the client if they have been exposed to tuberculosis:
While TB is a serious illness, it is not typically associated with jaundice, and is not the priority concern related to the new medication and sudden yellowing of the eyes.
B) Ask the client if they have been exposed to someone with cirrhosis or hepatitis:
Exposure history may be relevant, but it delays appropriate action. This is not as critical as immediate clinical evaluation.
D) See if the client is taking the cardiac glycoside digoxin as prescribed:
Digoxin is unrelated to jaundice or oral hypoglycemic medications and is not relevant in this scenario unless it was mentioned specifically in the history.
The client asks the nurse about the best way to prevent all types of hepatitis. Which response is most appropriate?
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Screening of blood and organs prior to donation
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Proper handling of needles
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Vaccine
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Hand-washing
Explanation
Correct Answer: C) Vaccine
Explanation:
Vaccination is the most effective strategy for preventing Hepatitis A, B, and D:
Hepatitis A and B have reliable and widely available vaccines.
Hepatitis D only occurs in individuals with Hepatitis B, so the HBV vaccine also indirectly protects against HDV.
This makes vaccination the most effective targeted prevention method for types with available vaccines.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Screening of blood and organs prior to donation:
This prevents bloodborne types like Hepatitis B and C, but not fecal-oral types like Hepatitis A and E. It’s essential but not comprehensive.
B) Proper handling of needles:
Helps prevent needle-transmitted hepatitis, especially B and C, but has no effect on food or waterborne viruses like HAV or HEV.
D) Hand-washing:
Effective in preventing fecal-oral transmission of Hepatitis A and E, but does not prevent bloodborne types (HBV, HCV, HDV).
A nurse is assessing a client for potential complications related to obesity. Which condition is the client most at risk for due to the obesity?
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Cardiovascular disease
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Hypothyroidism
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Osteoporosis
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Seizures
Explanation
Correct Answer: A) Cardiovascular disease
Explanation:
Obesity is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease, including conditions such as hypertension, coronary artery disease, heart failure, and stroke. Excess body fat contributes to increased blood pressure, elevated cholesterol levels, insulin resistance, and inflammation, all of which promote cardiovascular complications.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B) Hypothyroidism:
Hypothyroidism can contribute to weight gain, but it is not caused by obesity. The relationship is reversed.
C) Osteoporosis:
Obesity may actually provide some protection against osteoporosis due to increased bone loading. Although not universally protective, it is not a major risk factor for bone density loss.
D) Seizures:
Obesity does not directly increase the risk for seizures. Seizure disorders are typically related to neurological or metabolic conditions, not weight status.
Which statement about Monoamine oxidase inhibitors is INACCURATE?
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The client should be careful with their diet since some foods cause adverse reactions
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Clients experience immediate improvement in symptoms
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These drugs are used when newer drugs have not been effective.
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There are some drug-to-drug interactions that can contribute to hypertensive crisis.
Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Clients experience immediate improvement in symptoms
Explanation:
B) Clients experience immediate improvement in symptoms: This is inaccurate. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), like other antidepressants, typically take 2 to 4 weeks to show therapeutic effects. Clients do not experience immediate relief, and consistent use over time is necessary for symptom improvement.
Why the other options are correct:
A) The client should be careful with their diet since some foods cause adverse reactions:
Correct. MAOIs require dietary restrictions, especially avoiding tyramine-rich foods (e.g., aged cheese, cured meats, fermented products), as these can trigger hypertensive crisis.
C) These drugs are used when newer drugs have not been effective:
Correct. MAOIs are generally not first-line treatments and are reserved for clients who do not respond to SSRIs, SNRIs, or other antidepressants, due to their significant side effect profile and dietary restrictions.
D) There are some drug-to-drug interactions that can contribute to hypertensive crisis:
Correct. MAOIs have numerous drug interactions, particularly with sympathomimetics, other antidepressants, and certain over-the-counter cold medications, which can lead to serotonin syndrome or hypertensive emergencies.
The illustration shows various types of fracture. Select the one that depicts a greenstick fracture.
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A
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B
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C
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D
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E
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F
Explanation
Correct Answer: E)
Explanation:
A greenstick fracture is a type of incomplete fracture in which the bone bends and cracks on one side but does not break completely through—similar to bending a green twig. It is most common in children due to their softer, more flexible bones. In the illustration, E clearly shows a bent bone with a partial break on one side, consistent with the appearance of a greenstick fracture.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Shows a comminuted fracture, where the bone is broken into multiple pieces.
B) Shows a transverse fracture, a straight horizontal break across the bone.
C) Shows an oblique fracture, which runs at an angle to the bone’s axis.
D) Shows a segmental fracture, with two separate breaks creating a floating segment.
F) Shows a spiral fracture, which wraps around the bone, usually caused by twisting force.
Which kind of fracture listed here would most likely take the longest to heal?
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Undisplaced
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Compound
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Greenstick
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Oblique
Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Compound
Explanation:
A compound fracture (also called an open fracture) occurs when the broken bone pierces through the skin, exposing the fracture to the external environment. This type of fracture carries a high risk of infection, soft tissue damage, and complications such as delayed union or nonunion, all of which can significantly prolong the healing process. Treatment often requires surgical intervention, antibiotic therapy, and extended recovery time.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Undisplaced:
An undisplaced fracture means the bone remains aligned, making it generally easier and faster to heal with immobilization alone. There’s typically no surgical intervention required.
C) Greenstick:
Common in children, a greenstick fracture is incomplete—the bone bends and cracks on one side. Due to children’s strong healing capacity and the limited severity of the fracture, healing is usually quick and uncomplicated.
D) Oblique:
An oblique fracture runs diagonally across the bone. While it may need stabilization (e.g., casting or sometimes surgery), it typically heals faster than a compound fracture as long as it is properly aligned and infection-free.
The client has been diagnosed with Type 1 DM and has been prescribed Humulin R insulin. The patient will take the dose at 0900. When should the client be sure to have a snack or meal?
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0930
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1100
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1300
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1700
Explanation
Correct Answer: B) 1100
Explanation:
Humulin R (Regular insulin) is a short-acting insulin. After subcutaneous injection, it begins to work in 30 to 60 minutes, peaks at around 2 to 4 hours, and lasts for 6 to 8 hours. If the client takes it at 0900, the peak action (and greatest risk for hypoglycemia) will occur between 1100 and 1300. Therefore, a meal or snack should be consumed around the start of the peak, ideally by 1100, to prevent hypoglycemia.
Why other options are wrong:
A) 0930:
Too soon for the peak effect of Humulin R. While a breakfast close to the injection time is important, this option doesn’t address when to eat during peak action.
C) 1300:
This is too late, as the insulin would already be peaking and could lead to hypoglycemia before food is consumed.
D) 1700:
By this time, the effect of the 0900 dose has largely worn off. A meal at this point wouldn’t protect against a mid-morning insulin peak.
A nurse is preparing to discharge an obese client after abdominal surgery. Which instruction should the nurse prioritize to promote wound healing and prevent complications?
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"You should avoid taking pain medication to prevent constipation."
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"You should rest and avoid moving around too much to prevent strain on your incision."
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"You may return to your normal activity level once you feel comfortable at home."
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"It is important to maintain adequate nutrition, including a high-protein diet to support wound healing."
Explanation
Correct Answer: D) "It is important to maintain adequate nutrition, including a high-protein diet to support wound healing."
Explanation:
D) Adequate nutrition and a high-protein diet are essential after surgery to promote tissue repair, collagen synthesis, and immune function, all of which are vital for wound healing, especially in obese clients, who are at increased risk for wound dehiscence, infection, and delayed healing. Protein helps rebuild tissue and supports the healing process at the cellular level.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) "You should avoid taking pain medication to prevent constipation.":
While constipation is a valid concern, pain management is essential for mobility and deep breathing. Constipation can be managed with stool softeners and hydration, not by withholding pain relief.
B) "You should rest and avoid moving around too much to prevent strain on your incision.":
Prolonged immobility increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and respiratory complications. Clients should be encouraged to mobilize early, while avoiding strenuous activity.
C) "You may return to your normal activity level once you feel comfortable at home.":
This is too vague and may lead to premature overexertion. Activity should be gradually resumed based on medical advice and the nature of the surgery.
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Diabetes, kidney disease, gout, pharmacology, research methods, and clinical scenarios.
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