ATI Nur 130 exam 3 Fall
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Free ATI Nur 130 exam 3 Fall Questions
A nurse is creating a teaching plan for a client who has a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.
Client Education
Client Education
Day 1 Learning Outcome:
Describe basic definition of diabetes mellitus.
Describe expected reference range and target blood glucose levels.
Describe manifestations of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia.
Day 1 Teaching Methods:
Give the client printed information describing diabetes mellitus.
Engage in a question-and-answer session with the client.
Day 2 Learning Objectives:
Describe effects of insulin and exercise.
Demonstrate monitoring blood glucose levels using a fingerstick and
blood glucose monitor.
Day 2 Teaching Methods:
Ask the client how they feel about checking their blood glucose.
Ask the client to demonstrate checking their blood glucose level.
Which of the following teaching methods is based on the cognitive domain of learning
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Give the client printed information describing diabetes mellitus.
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Engage in a question-and-answer session with the client.
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Ask the client how they feel about checking their blood glucose.
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Ask the client to demonstrate checking their blood glucose level.
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Give the client a fill-in-the blank quiz.
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Ask the client to describe the manifestations of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia.
Explanation
The correct answers are:
A. Give the client printed information describing diabetes mellitus.
B. Engage in a question-and-answer session with the client.
E. Give the client a fill-in-the-blank quiz.
F. Ask the client to describe the manifestations of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia.
Explanation:
The cognitive domain of learning focuses on acquiring and understanding knowledge. It involves mental processes such as remembering, understanding, applying, analyzing, evaluating, and creating. Teaching methods that fall under this domain focus on increasing a client’s knowledge about their condition and its management.
Why the correct answers are based on the cognitive domain:
A. Give the client printed information describing diabetes mellitus.
Providing printed materials is a cognitive learning method because it gives the client factual knowledge about diabetes that they can read and understand.
B. Engage in a question-and-answer session with the client.
This method promotes cognitive learning by encouraging the client to recall, comprehend, and apply information about diabetes through active discussion.
E. Give the client a fill-in-the-blank quiz.
Quizzes test the client’s ability to recall and apply knowledge, which falls under the cognitive domain. It assesses whether the client understands key concepts about their condition.
F. Ask the client to describe the manifestations of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia.
This requires the client to recall and explain information, demonstrating their knowledge and understanding of symptoms related to blood glucose imbalances.
Why the other options are incorrect:
C. Ask the client how they feel about checking their blood glucose.
This falls under the affective domain of learning, which involves emotions, attitudes, and feelings. Asking about feelings assesses emotional readiness and personal attitudes toward self-care, rather than knowledge.
D. Ask the client to demonstrate checking their blood glucose level.
This falls under the psychomotor domain of learning, which involves developing physical skills. Demonstrating a technique, such as using a blood glucose monitor, is a hands-on skill rather than an intellectual or knowledge-based activity.
Summary:
The cognitive domain of learning involves knowledge acquisition, comprehension, and recall. Teaching strategies that support this domain include providing printed materials, engaging in discussions, using quizzes, and asking clients to recall information. The other domains—affective (emotions and attitudes) and psychomotor (physical skills)—are separate from cognitive learning.
What are the potential consequences of poor self-care in individuals
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Decreased mental health
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Enhanced cognitive function
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Improved social relationships
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Reduced risk of injury
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Impaired immune function
Explanation
Correct Answer:
A. Decreased mental health,
E. Impaired immune function
Explanation:
Why A is correct (Decreased mental health):
Poor self-care, such as inadequate sleep, poor nutrition, and lack of exercise, can negatively impact mental health. It can contribute to the development or exacerbation of conditions such as depression, anxiety, and stress, leading to a decline in overall well-being. When individuals fail to engage in regular self-care, they may also struggle with coping mechanisms and emotional regulation.
Why E is correct (Impaired immune function):
Poor self-care can weaken the immune system. Factors like lack of sleep, poor diet, high levels of chronic stress, and insufficient physical activity can impair the body's ability to fight infections and recover from illness. This can increase the risk of developing illnesses and result in a slower recovery process.
Explanation of Incorrect Options:
B. Enhanced cognitive function:
Poor self-care typically does not enhance cognitive function. In fact, inadequate self-care can impair cognitive performance. Lack of proper rest, nutrition, and mental engagement can lead to decreased concentration, memory problems, and mental fatigue. Healthy self-care practices are essential for maintaining cognitive function.
C. Improved social relationships:
Poor self-care is unlikely to improve social relationships. When individuals neglect their physical and emotional health, they may find it difficult to engage meaningfully with others, leading to strained relationships. Inadequate self-care can also cause irritability, fatigue, and emotional instability, further affecting interpersonal interactions.
D. Reduced risk of injury:
Poor self-care does not reduce the risk of injury. In fact, it can increase the risk. For example, inadequate physical activity can lead to weakness and poor coordination, while lack of rest can impair decision-making and reaction times, both of which can contribute to a higher risk of injury.
Summary:
Poor self-care can have significant negative effects on mental and physical health, including decreased mental health and impaired immune function. It typically leads to cognitive decline, weakened social relationships, and an increased risk of injury. Healthy self-care practices, on the other hand, help maintain mental, emotional, and physical well-being.
Why is work life balance important for nurses
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To achieve higher job satisfaction and career advancement
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To increase productivity and efficiency at work
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To prevent burnout and maintain overall well-being
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To prioritize personal life over professional life
Explanation
The correct answer is C: To prevent burnout and maintain overall well-being.
Explanation:
Work-life balance is essential for nurses because it helps prevent burnout, reduce stress, and promote overall well-being. Nursing is a demanding profession, requiring long hours, emotional resilience, and physical stamina. Without proper balance, nurses are at high risk for burnout, compassion fatigue, mental exhaustion, and even physical health issues. Maintaining a balance between work responsibilities and personal life supports mental, emotional, and physical health, which in turn enhances the ability to provide safe and effective patient care.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. To achieve higher job satisfaction and career advancement.
While work-life balance can contribute to job satisfaction, its primary role is to protect nurses from excessive stress and burnout. Career advancement depends on multiple factors such as experience, education, and leadership skills, not just work-life balance.
B. To increase productivity and efficiency at work.
Maintaining work-life balance may help with efficiency, but the primary purpose is not about maximizing productivity—it’s about ensuring nurses can manage their workload without sacrificing personal well-being.
D. To prioritize personal life over professional life.
Work-life balance is not about prioritizing one over the other; rather, it is about finding a sustainable equilibrium where both professional responsibilities and personal needs are managed effectively.
Summary:
Work-life balance in nursing is crucial for preventing burnout, reducing stress, and maintaining physical and emotional well-being. A well-balanced nurse is better equipped to provide quality patient care and sustain a long, fulfilling career in the profession.
Which of the following lifestyle factors is known to increase the risk of developing diabetes by contributing to insulin resistance and impaired glucose regulation
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Genetics
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High fiber intake
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Low-fat diet
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Lack of physical activity
Explanation
The correct answer is D: Lack of physical activity.
Explanation:
Why this answer is correct:
Lack of physical activity is a significant lifestyle factor that contributes to insulin resistance and impaired glucose regulation. When individuals do not engage in regular physical activity, their bodies are less efficient at utilizing insulin, which can lead to higher blood glucose levels. Physical activity helps increase muscle cells' sensitivity to insulin and enhances the uptake of glucose from the bloodstream into the muscles, thereby improving blood sugar control. A sedentary lifestyle, on the other hand, promotes insulin resistance and is a well-known risk factor for the development of type 2 diabetes.
Why the other choices are incorrect:
A) Genetics
While genetics do play a role in the development of diabetes, they are not a modifiable lifestyle factor. Genetics influence an individual’s susceptibility to diabetes, but lifestyle choices like physical activity and diet are the key factors that can mitigate or exacerbate the risk of developing the disease.
B) High fiber intake
High fiber intake is generally beneficial for regulating blood sugar levels and improving insulin sensitivity. Fiber, particularly from whole grains, fruits, and vegetables, helps slow the absorption of glucose into the bloodstream and can help prevent the development of insulin resistance. It is not a risk factor for diabetes.
C) Low-fat diet
A low-fat diet is not inherently a risk factor for developing diabetes. In fact, a well-balanced diet that includes healthy fats (e.g., those from avocados, nuts, and olive oil) can help improve insulin sensitivity and support overall metabolic health. It is important to differentiate between unhealthy trans fats and saturated fats and healthy fats in terms of their impact on diabetes risk.
Summary:
The most significant lifestyle factor contributing to insulin resistance and impaired glucose regulation is lack of physical activity. Regular exercise helps improve insulin sensitivity and glucose metabolism, thereby reducing the risk of developing type 2 diabetes. Genetics and diet choices (like fiber intake) also influence diabetes risk, but they are either non-modifiable or beneficial factors.
A 68-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. The nurse observes that the patient is exhibiting rapid, shallow breathing, and their oxygen saturation is low at 88%. The patient is struggling to breathe adequately and is showing signs of respiratory distress. The nurse recognizes the need for a nursing diagnosis to address this issue. Which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate to address the patient's inadequate breathing pattern and low oxygen levels
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Altered Gas Exchange
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Impaired Physical Mobility
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Acute Pain
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Risk for Infection
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Altered Gas Exchange
Explanation:
Why Answer A is Correct:
The patient is experiencing an ineffective breathing pattern and insufficient oxygenation, which results in an impaired exchange of gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) between the alveoli and the bloodstream. This condition is best described by the nursing diagnosis of Altered Gas Exchange, which focuses on the disruption of oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the body. The goal of nursing interventions in this case would be to improve the patient's ventilation and oxygenation, addressing the root cause of the ineffective breathing pattern.
Why the Other Choices Are Wrong:
B) Impaired Physical Mobility
This nursing diagnosis relates to the patient's ability to move, such as limited ability to walk or perform tasks due to physical limitations. Although the patient may be experiencing discomfort from pneumonia, Impaired Physical Mobility is not the primary concern in this case, as the issue is more related to respiratory function and oxygen exchange.
C) Acute Pain
While pneumonia can cause pain, especially in the chest, Acute Pain does not directly address the respiratory issues that the patient is facing, such as inadequate oxygenation and ineffective breathing patterns. Acute pain may be a secondary diagnosis, but it doesn't focus on the respiratory concern of gas exchange.
D) Risk for Infection
Although the patient is admitted with pneumonia, which is an infection, Risk for Infection is a diagnosis used when a patient is at risk of developing an infection, not when they are already experiencing one. In this case, the priority is to address the impaired gas exchange caused by inadequate breathing, rather than focusing on the risk of infection.
Summary:
In this scenario, the patient is experiencing inadequate respirations due to pneumonia, which leads to impaired gas exchange. Altered Gas Exchange is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis because it directly addresses the issues with oxygenation and carbon dioxide elimination. The other options, including Impaired Physical Mobility, Acute Pain, and Risk for Infection, do not address the main concern, which is the patient's breathing and oxygen levels. Therefore, Answer A is correct, as it best reflects the patient's primary issue.
Which of the following is the most common cause of visual loss in people older than 60 years of age
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Cataracts
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Glaucoma
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Macular degeneration
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Diabetic retinopathy
Explanation
Correct Answer C: Macular degeneration
Explanation:
Why this answer is correct:
Macular degeneration, specifically age-related macular degeneration (AMD), is the most common cause of visual loss in people older than 60 years of age. This condition involves damage to the macula, the central part of the retina, leading to the loss of central vision. AMD typically results in difficulty reading, recognizing faces, and performing tasks that require detailed vision. It is a significant cause of visual impairment in aging populations, especially in those over 60 years old.
Why the other choices are incorrect:
A) Cataracts – While cataracts are a common cause of vision loss in older adults, they generally cause blurry or clouded vision, and surgery is often effective in restoring sight. They are not the leading cause of central vision loss as seen in macular degeneration.
B) Glaucoma – Glaucoma can lead to vision loss, but it typically affects peripheral vision first. If untreated, it can progress to blindness. However, macular degeneration is more directly responsible for central vision loss, which is often more debilitating for older adults.
D) Diabetic retinopathy – This condition can cause vision problems, but it is typically seen in individuals with diabetes and may affect both peripheral and central vision. However, age-related macular degeneration is still the most prevalent cause of visual loss in the elderly, especially in those without diabetes.
Summary:
The correct answer is C) because macular degeneration is the leading cause of central vision loss in individuals over the age of 60, impacting daily activities such as reading and recognizing faces.
A nurse is educating a patient recently diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) about the goals of treatment. The nurse explains that the primary objectives of the treatment plan are to manage the disease and prevent long-term complications. Which of the following should the nurse identify as key goals in the treatment of lupus
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Promote independence in daily activities
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Prevent loss of organ function, reduce exacerbation, minimize disability, and prevent therapy complications
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Encourage long periods of bed rest to avoid fatigue
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Focus only on symptom relief without considering long-term health outcomes
Explanation
Correct Answer B: Prevent loss of organ function, reduce exacerbation, minimize disability, and prevent therapy complications
Explanation of Correct Answer:
The key goals of lupus treatment are aimed at preventing complications that can arise due to the disease, managing flare-ups effectively, and minimizing the impact on a patient's quality of life. This includes:
Preventing loss of organ function: Lupus can affect vital organs such as the kidneys, heart, and lungs. Treatment aims to preserve their function.
Reducing exacerbation: Preventing or minimizing flare-ups is critical in managing lupus, as these can lead to more severe damage over time.
Minimizing disability: The goal is to reduce the limitations that lupus imposes on daily activities, enabling the patient to maintain as much independence as possible.
Preventing therapy complications: Medications used to treat lupus, such as corticosteroids, can have side effects. The goal is to manage these side effects and ensure the patient is not harmed by the treatment.
Explanation of Incorrect Answers:
A) Promote independence in daily activities: While promoting independence is important, it is not the primary goal of lupus treatment. The primary focus should be on controlling the disease and preventing complications, not just encouraging independence without managing the underlying health issues.
C) Encourage long periods of bed rest to avoid fatigue: Bed rest is not recommended for managing lupus. While it is important for patients to rest during flare-ups or times of increased fatigue, prolonged bed rest can contribute to muscle atrophy, joint stiffness, and overall decline in function. Activity should be encouraged at a level appropriate for the patient’s condition.
D) Focus only on symptom relief without considering long-term health outcomes: Symptom relief is certainly important in managing lupus, but the goal is much broader. Long-term outcomes, including preventing organ damage and maintaining overall health, are crucial aspects of treatment. Just focusing on symptom relief without considering these broader goals is not sufficient to manage lupus effectively.
Summary:
The main goals of treating lupus are to preserve organ function, reduce flare-ups, minimize the effects of the disease on the patient’s life, and avoid complications from treatment. The correct answer (B) encompasses all these critical treatment objectives. The other options focus on narrower or less comprehensive goals, such as promoting independence or symptom relief without addressing the full scope of the disease management needed for lupus.
Your patient is ready to be discharged home after a cataract extraction with intraocular lens implant. You are teaching your patient about signs and symptoms that need to be reported to the ophthalmologist immediately. You know that the patient understands when he says what
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I need to call the doctor if I see flashing lights.
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I should call the doctor if my vision becomes clearer.
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I need to call the doctor if my eye feels itchy
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I should call the doctor if my eye is dry and feels irritated.
Explanation
Correct Answer A: I need to call the doctor if I see flashing lights.
Explanation:
Why this answer is correct:
Flashing lights can be a sign of retinal detachment, which is a serious complication that requires immediate medical attention. In a patient who has undergone cataract surgery with intraocular lens implantation, any sudden change in vision, such as seeing flashing lights, new floaters, or a shadow or curtain over their vision, should be reported to the ophthalmologist immediately. These symptoms may indicate retinal problems that need urgent care to prevent permanent vision loss.
Why the other choices are incorrect:
B) I should call the doctor if my vision becomes clearer.– Improved vision after cataract surgery is a positive sign and does not require reporting to the doctor. It indicates that the surgery was successful.
C) I need to call the doctor if my eye feels itchy. – Mild itching can be a normal part of the healing process after cataract surgery. However, if it persists or is accompanied by other symptoms like pain, redness, or discharge, the patient should contact the ophthalmologist.
D) I should call the doctor if my eye is dry and feels irritated. – Dryness or irritation can be common after cataract surgery, and artificial tears are usually recommended for relief. If the irritation is severe or persistent, the patient should contact the doctor, but it is not an immediate emergency like flashing lights.
Summary:
The correct answer is A) because flashing lights can indicate a retinal detachment, which is an emergency that requires immediate attention. The other symptoms mentioned are more typical of normal healing and do not require urgent reporting to the ophthalmologist.
A nursing student is studying the mechanisms of glucose regulation. Which of the following processes primarily achieves glucose regulation in the body
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Nutrient intake
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Hormonal signaling
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Glucose uptake by the cell
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Glucose storage in the liver
Explanation
Correct Answer B: Hormonal signaling
Explanation:
Why B is correct (Hormonal signaling): The primary mechanism for regulating glucose levels in the body involves hormonal signaling. Insulin, secreted by the pancreas, plays a crucial role in lowering blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose by cells for energy or storage. When blood glucose levels are low, glucagon, another hormone from the pancreas, is released to stimulate the release of glucose from the liver. This dynamic balance between insulin and glucagon ensures that blood glucose levels are maintained within a narrow range, a process known as glucose homeostasis.
Explanation of Incorrect Options:
A) Nutrient intake:
While nutrient intake can influence blood glucose levels (e.g., consuming carbohydrates increases glucose levels), it is not the primary process for regulating glucose. The regulation of glucose primarily occurs through the actions of hormones like insulin and glucagon, which respond to nutrient intake and adjust blood glucose levels accordingly.
C) Glucose uptake by the cell:
Glucose uptake by the cells is an important part of glucose regulation, but it is facilitated by insulin. The uptake of glucose by the cells is part of the response to hormonal signaling rather than an independent mechanism for regulating glucose levels. Insulin is responsible for promoting glucose uptake by cells, especially in muscle and adipose tissue.
D) Glucose storage in the liver:
While the liver plays a role in storing glucose as glycogen and releasing it into the bloodstream when needed (through glycogenolysis), this is a process that is controlled by hormonal signaling. Insulin promotes the storage of glucose in the liver, while glucagon stimulates the release of stored glucose. Therefore, glucose storage in the liver is an effect of hormonal signaling, not an independent mechanism.
Summary:
The primary process that achieves glucose regulation in the body is hormonal signaling, particularly through the actions of insulin and glucagon. These hormones ensure blood glucose levels remain within a healthy range by promoting glucose uptake, storage, and release as needed. The other options—nutrient intake, glucose uptake by cells, and glucose storage in the liver—are important aspects of glucose regulation but occur as part of the overall hormonal signaling process.
Diabetic retinopathy is a significant concern for individuals with diabetes. Which of the following statements regarding diabetic retinopathy is correct
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It primarily affects the large blood vessels in the retina.
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Diabetic retinopathy is typically a painful condition.
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It is the leading cause of blindness among people aged 20 to 74.
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Management of diabetic retinopathy focuses solely on treatment once symptoms are present.
Explanation
Correct Answer C: It is the leading cause of blindness among people aged 20 to 74.
Explanation:
Why Answer C is Correct:
Diabetic retinopathy is a major cause of vision loss and is the leading cause of blindness among adults aged 20 to 74. It results from damage to the blood vessels in the retina due to prolonged high blood sugar levels. The condition can progress without symptoms, which is why early detection and regular eye exams are essential for people with diabetes.
Why the Other Choices Are Incorrect:
A) It primarily affects the large blood vessels in the retina
Diabetic retinopathy primarily affects the small blood vessels in the retina, not the large ones. High blood sugar levels can cause these small blood vessels to weaken, leak, or become blocked, leading to vision problems. The damage to large vessels is more associated with conditions like hypertensive retinopathy.
B) Diabetic retinopathy is typically a painful condition
Diabetic retinopathy is usually painless, especially in its early stages. People may not experience any symptoms until significant damage has occurred. By the time vision problems appear, the disease may be quite advanced, but it does not typically cause pain.
D) Management of diabetic retinopathy focuses solely on treatment once symptoms are present
Management of diabetic retinopathy focuses on prevention and early detection rather than waiting for symptoms to appear. Regular eye exams to check for early signs of the condition can help prevent severe vision loss. Treatment options like laser therapy or injections are available, but the focus is on managing the condition early, not just treating symptoms after they appear.
Summary:
The correct answer is C) It is the leading cause of blindness among people aged 20 to 74 because diabetic retinopathy is a significant cause of vision loss in this age group. The other options are incorrect because diabetic retinopathy affects small blood vessels in the retina, is typically painless, and should be managed through early detection and prevention, not just after symptoms arise.
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