Hesi Rn Fundamental NSG

Hesi Rn Fundamental NSG

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Free Hesi Rn Fundamental NSG Questions

1.

The nurse assesses a client's fingernails as seen in the photo. How should the nurse document the findings?

  • Fingernail pitting present.

  • Capillary refill less than 3 seconds.

  • Nail care needed.

  • Nailbed pink.

Explanation

Correct Answer:

D. Nailbed pink.

Explanation:

The photo shows fingernails with a healthy pink color of the nailbeds, which is a sign of adequate blood circulation and oxygenation. Documenting the pink nailbed is accurate because it reflects the normal vascular status of the client’s extremities, confirming no signs of cyanosis or circulatory impairment.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A. Fingernail pitting present. This refers to small depressions in the nail plate typically seen in psoriasis or other skin disorders. The photo does not show this abnormality, so this documentation would be incorrect.

B. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds. This option would require the nurse to perform a capillary refill test by pressing on the nailbed and timing how quickly the color returns. This is not something that can be seen just by observation, and the image does not provide evidence of this test being done.

C. Nail care needed. This is a general note that would apply if the nails appeared dirty, overgrown, or otherwise in need of maintenance. The image shows well-kept nails, so this is not a necessary documentation at this time.


2.

The nurse is obtaining a health history for a client wishing to obtain a life insurance policy. When evaluating the abdomen, the client reports taking several antacids for heartburn that only occurs at night. Which additional finding associated with gastroesophageal reflux should the nurse ask the client to identify?

  • Small frequent meals cause heartburn to worsen.

  • Hyperactive bowel sounds are present in all quadrants.

  • Bowel movements are light grey and chalky.

  • Heartburn occurs when lying down at night.

Explanation

Correct Answer:

D. Heartburn occurs when lying down at night.

Explanation:

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is a condition where stomach acid or bile irritates the food pipe lining, often leading to heartburn or acid reflux. One of the hallmark symptoms of GERD is the worsening of heartburn when lying down, particularly at night. This happens because when a person is in a supine position, gravity no longer helps keep the stomach contents from flowing back into the esophagus, which can lead to a more severe sensation of heartburn.

Why the Other Options are Incorrect:

A. Small frequent meals cause heartburn to worsen: While large meals can exacerbate heartburn, small meals typically help alleviate symptoms. Small, frequent meals are generally recommended to reduce reflux.


B. Hyperactive bowel sounds are present in all quadrants: Hyperactive bowel sounds are more commonly associated with gastrointestinal conditions such as diarrhea or infections, not specifically GERD.

C. Bowel movements are light grey and chalky: Light grey or chalky stool may indicate a problem with bile secretion or liver function, such as biliary obstruction, rather than GERD.


3.

While completing a health assessment for a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD), which assessment technique is most important for the nurse to implement?

  • Document thickened toe nails.

  • Measure ankle-brachial index (ABI).

  • Measure and record dependent ankle edema.

  • Palpate and document quality of distal pulses.

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. Measure ankle-brachial index (ABI).

Explanation:

Measuring the ankle-brachial index (ABI) is a highly reliable, noninvasive method for assessing the presence and severity of peripheral vascular disease. It compares the blood pressure in the ankle with the blood pressure in the arm to determine how well blood is flowing to the limbs. An ABI below 0.90 is generally indicative of PVD. This test not only confirms the diagnosis but also helps monitor disease progression and guide treatment decisions.

Why the Other Options are Incorrect:

A. Documenting thickened toenails can suggest chronic poor circulation but is not diagnostic and does not quantify the degree of vascular impairment.

C. Dependent ankle edema is more commonly associated with venous insufficiency or heart failure than with arterial PVD.

D. Palpating distal pulses is important and often done first during a physical exam, but it is subjective and less precise than ABI in quantifying blood flow reduction.


4.

The nurse is caring for a client who is overweight and easily becomes diaphoretic. In response to this finding, which assessment(s) should the nurse include while assisting the client with personal care? Select all that apply.

  • Check skin for unusual bruising.

  • Palpate mucus membranes for cracks.

  • Observe skin under the breasts.

  • Assess skin folds of perineal area.

  • Monitor the color of nail beds.

Explanation

Correct Answer:

Observe skin under the breasts.

Assess skin folds of perineal area.


Explanation:

Clients who are overweight and diaphoretic are at increased risk for skin breakdown in areas where skin folds trap moisture. Observing under the breasts and assessing perineal skin folds helps identify early signs of skin irritation, breakdown, or fungal infections, which are common in warm, moist environments.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Check skin for unusual bruising.

While assessing for bruising may be relevant in other contexts (e.g., anticoagulant use), it is not specific to the concerns presented—skin breakdown due to moisture in skin folds.

Palpate mucus membranes for cracks.

This is more relevant to hydration status than to risks posed by diaphoresis and obesity-related skin issues. It does not address the priority concern of moist skin fold areas.

Monitor the color of nail beds.

Nail Bed color is an indicator of oxygenation or circulation issues, which is not the focus of this question. It does not directly relate to the risk posed by excess sweating and skin folds.


5.

The nurse has just completed palpation maneuvers for lymph nodes on an older adult female client. Which findings are considered normal for this older adult client?

  • Nodes are nonpalpable.

  • Inguinal nodes are enlarged and warm to the touch.

  • Nodes feel ropey and rubbery.

  • Axillary nodes feel soft and fatty.

Explanation

Correct Answer:

A. Nodes are nonpalpable.

Explanation:

In healthy adults, including older adults, lymph nodes are typically nonpalpable, meaning they cannot be felt during a physical examination. If lymph nodes are palpable, it may indicate inflammation, infection, or other underlying conditions, such as malignancy. Nonpalpable nodes suggest that there are no abnormalities in the lymphatic system, making this a normal finding for an older adult client.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. Inguinal nodes that are enlarged and warm to the touch are not considered normal, especially in the absence of infection or trauma. This finding may suggest lymphadenopathy or an infection in the lower extremities or groin area. Warmth and enlargement of lymph nodes are often signs of inflammation or infection, which should be evaluated further.

C. Lymph nodes that feel "ropey and rubbery" may suggest a change in texture, potentially indicating a pathologic condition, such as lymphoma or another type of malignancy. Healthy lymph nodes are typically soft and mobile, without firm or irregular texture. This description would not be considered normal in an older adult client.

D. Axillary nodes that feel soft and fatty are also not typically a normal finding. Although lymph nodes in the axillary region may be slightly palpable in some individuals, they should not feel soft and fatty. Enlarged, soft, or fatty axillary nodes may be indicative of underlying conditions such as infection, cancer, or lymphatic issues and should be evaluated by a healthcare provider.


6.

A nurse finds a client sitting on the floor beside the bed. The client is alert, denies pain, and states they slipped while trying to get up. What is the nurse’s priority action?

  • Assist the client back to bed and perform a head-to-toe assessment.

  • Complete an incident report and notify the charge nurse.

  • Ask the client why they got out of bed unassisted.

  • Document the event in the nurse’s notes and monitor the client for 24 hours.

Explanation

Correct Answer:

Assist the client back to bed and perform a head-to-toe assessment.

Explanation:

The first priority is client safety. Even if the client appears uninjured, an assessment must be performed before moving or continuing with documentation. This ensures no injuries are missed and establishes a baseline.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Complete an incident report and notify the charge nurse.

This is necessary but not the priority. Assessment must occur before any administrative steps.

Ask the client why they got out of bed unassisted.

This could be part of the conversation later but is not urgent. Ensuring physical safety comes first.

Document the event in the nurse’s notes and monitor the client for 24 hours.

Documentation and monitoring are important, but only after the initial assessment is done to check for injury.


7.

Which method should the nurse use to assess response to painful stimuli for a client with a marked reduction in the level of consciousness (LOC)?

  • Press firmly on the center of the sternum.

  • Shake and call the client's name.

  • Use aromatic spirits of peppermint.

  • Run a pointed object up the sole of foot.

Explanation

Correct Answer:

A. Press firmly on the center of the sternum.

Explanation:

For clients with a significantly decreased level of consciousness, the nurse uses a graded approach to assess responsiveness. When verbal stimuli (such as calling the client's name or a gentle shake) fail to produce a response, the next step involves applying a painful stimulus. Pressing firmly on the center of the sternum (also called a sternal rub) is a standard method of providing a noxious stimulus that typically elicits a reaction if there is any neurological responsiveness. It is a quick, effective, and commonly used method in acute care settings to evaluate deeper levels of unconsciousness.

Why the Other Options are Incorrect:

B. Shaking and calling the client's name is appropriate for assessing response to verbal stimuli but is insufficient when there is a marked reduction in LOC and no verbal response is elicited.

C. Using aromatic spirits of peppermint is a method used to assess olfactory response or awaken someone who is merely faint or lightheaded; it is not suitable for evaluating deeper levels of unconsciousness.

D. Running a pointed object up the sole of the foot is part of the Babinski reflex test, which evaluates upper motor neuron function, not a general painful stimulus response.


8.

Patient Data
History and Physical
An adult comes into the clinic for an annual physical.
Drag from Word Choices to complete the sentence.
Heart sounds are loudest for S1 at the ______ and for S2 at the ______.

  • Apex of the heart, Right side of the heart.

  • Right side of the heart, Base of the heart.

  • Apex of the heart, Base of the heart

  • Center of the heart, Left side of the heart.

Explanation

Correct Answer:

C. Apex of the heart, Base of the heart


Explanation:

S1, the first heart sound, is loudest at the apex of the heart. This sound is produced by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves at the beginning of systole and is best heard over the lower left side of the chest where the apex of the heart lies. S2, the second heart sound, is loudest at the base of the heart. It is caused by the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves at the beginning of diastole and is best heard at the upper part of the chest near the second intercostal spaces on the left and right sternal borders.

Why the other options are incorrect:


A. The right side of the heart is not where heart sounds are loudest; S1 is best heard at the apex, and S2 at the base.

B. S1 is not loudest at the right side; this pairing is incorrect.

D. While the left side may offer good auscultation areas, “center of the heart” is not an accurate landmark for either S1 or S2 sounds.

Summary:


The correct answer is C. Apex of the heart, Base of the heart, as these are the precise anatomical locations where S1 and S2 are best auscultated during a cardiac exam.


9.

The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is providing a total bed bath for a confused and lethargic client. The UAP is soaking the client’s foot in a basin of warm water placed on the bed. Which action should the nurse take?

  • Remind the UAP to dry between the client’s toes completely.

  • Advise the UAP that this procedure is damaging to the skin.

  • Add skin cream to the basin of water while the foot is soaking.

  • Remove the basin of water from the client’s bed immediately.

Explanation

Correct Answer:

Remove the basin of water from the client’s bed immediately.

Explanation:

Soaking a client's foot in water while on the bed creates a safety hazard, including risk of spills, electrical injury, or skin breakdown due to prolonged moisture exposure. Since the client is confused and lethargic, they are at greater risk for injury. The nurse must act immediately to eliminate the risk.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

Remind the UAP to dry between the client’s toes completely.

Drying is important to prevent fungal infections, but the current setup poses an immediate safety hazard that must be addressed first.

Advise the UAP that this procedure is damaging to the skin.

This feedback is educational but not urgent. Immediate removal of the hazard is the priority.

Add skin cream to the basin of water while the foot is soaking.

This is inappropriate and may further damage the skin or cause slipperiness and injury risk.


10.

The healthcare provider prescribes digoxin elixir 125 mcg PO daily. The drug is available in a 60 mL bottle labeled, "Digoxin elixir 0.05 mg/mL." How many mL should the nurse administer? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest tenth.)

  • 1.8

  • 2.5

  • 2.8

  • 3.5

Explanation

Correct Answer:

2.5

Explanation:

First, convert the prescribed dose from micrograms to milligrams:

125 mcg = 0.125 mg

Use the formula:

Dose desired / Dose on hand = Amount to administer

0.125 mg ÷ 0.05 mg/mL = 2.5 mL

This is the volume the nurse should administer to deliver the prescribed dose accurately.

Why Other Options are Wrong:

1.8

This value underdoses the client. It may come from incorrectly rounding too early or misapplying the ratio.

2.8

This value is too high. It likely results from dividing incorrectly or converting micrograms to milligrams improperly.

3.5

This significantly overdoses the client. It may result from mistakenly dividing 125 by 0.05 without converting mcg to mg first, giving an answer of 2,500 instead of 0.125 ÷ 0.05.


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