Maternal HESI Exam

Maternal HESI Exam

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Free Maternal HESI Exam Questions

1.

A primigravida client wo is 5 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and at 0 station is requestion an epidural for pain relief. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider

  • cervical dilation of 5 cm with 90% effacement

  • white blood cell count of 12,000/mm3.

  • hemoglobin of 12 mg/dL and hematocrit of 38%

  • a platelet count of 67,000/mm3

Explanation

Correct Answer: A platelet count of 67,000/mm³.

Explanation:

Before administering an epidural
, the nurse must assess the client’s coagulation status, particularly the platelet count. A platelet count below 100,000/mm³ increases the risk of bleeding into the epidural space, which can lead to a spinal hematoma, a serious complication that can cause permanent neurological damage. The safe threshold for an epidural is typically above 100,000/mm³, so a platelet count of 67,000/mm³ is too low and must be reported immediately to the healthcare provider.

Explanation of Incorrect Options:

Cervical dilation of 5 cm with 90% effacement.

This assessment indicates the client is in the active phase of labor, which is an appropriate time to receive an epidural. This finding does not require immediate reporting, as it does not pose a contraindication to epidural placement.

White blood cell count of 12,000/mm³.

A WBC count of 12,000/mm³ is a normal physiological response to pregnancy and labor. Leukocytosis (elevated WBCs) is common in labor due to stress and inflammation and does not affect the decision to administer an epidural.

 Hemoglobin of 12 mg/dL and hematocrit of 38%.

These values are within the normal range for pregnancy and indicate that the client does not have anemia. They do not pose a risk for epidural administration.

Summary:

A platelet count below 100,000/mm³
increases the risk of bleeding and spinal hematoma during an epidural. Since the client’s platelet count is 67,000/mm³, this must be immediately reported to the healthcare provider. The other findings are normal for pregnancy and labor and do not affect epidural administration. 


2.

A postpartum client who is Rh-negative refuses to receive RhoGAM after delivery of an infant who is Rh-positive. Which information should the nurse provide this client

  • RhoGAM prevents maternal antibody formation for future Rh-positive babies.

  • RhoGAM is not necessary unless all her pregnancies are Rh-positive.

  • The R-positive factor from the fetus threatens her blood cells.

  • The mother should receive RhoGAM when the baby is Rh-negative.

Explanation

The correct answer: RhoGAM prevents maternal antibody formation for future Rh-positive babies.

Rationale:

RhoGAM (Rho(D) immune globulin) is given to Rh-negative mothers
after delivering an Rh-positive infant to prevent maternal sensitization. If an Rh-negative mother is exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood during delivery, her immune system may produce antibodies against Rh-positive red blood cells. These antibodies can attack the red blood cells of future Rh-positive pregnancies, leading to hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN).

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

RhoGAM is not necessary unless all her pregnancies are Rh-positive.

Even one pregnancy
with an Rh-positive fetus can cause sensitization, putting future Rh-positive babies at risk for hemolytic disease. RhoGAM should be given after any pregnancy involving an Rh-positive fetus, even if it is the first one.

 The Rh-positive factor from the fetus threatens her blood cells.

The mother's immune system
reacts to Rh-positive fetal cells by producing antibodies, but her own blood cells are not at risk. The real threat is to future Rh-positive fetuses.

The mother should receive RhoGAM when the baby is Rh-negative.

 RhoGAM is only needed
when the infant is Rh-positive. If the baby is Rh-negative, there is no risk of Rh incompatibility.

Summary:

RhoGAM is critical
in preventing maternal sensitization to Rh-positive blood, protecting future Rh-positive pregnancies from hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN). Educating the client about the importance of RhoGAM can help ensure informed decision-making and optimal maternal-fetal health outcomes.


3.

A woman who gave birth 48 hours ago is bottle-feeding her infant. During assessment, the nurse determines that both breasts are swollen, warm, and tender upon palpation. What action should the nurse take

  • apply cold compresses to both breasts for comfort

  • instruct the client run warm water on her breasts

  • wear a loose-fitting bra to prevent nipple irritation

  • express small amounts of milk to relieve pressure

Explanation

Correct Answer: Apply cold compresses to both breasts for comfort.

Explanation:

The client is experiencing engorgement
, which is a common condition that occurs two to five days postpartum due to increased blood flow, lymphatic congestion, and milk production. Even though she is bottle-feeding and not breastfeeding, she can still experience engorgement. Cold compresses or ice packs help reduce swelling, inflammation, and discomfort by constricting blood vessels and decreasing milk production.

Explanation of Incorrect Options:

 Instruct the client to run warm water on her breasts.

Warm water and heat can increase circulation and stimulate milk flow, which may worsen engorgement and prolong discomfort. This approach is more beneficial for a breastfeeding mother who needs to encourage milk let-down but is not recommended for a non-breastfeeding mother.

Wear a loose-fitting bra to prevent nipple irritation.

A tight, supportive bra is recommended for non-breastfeeding mothers to minimize breast movement and reduce discomfort. A loose-fitting bra does not provide adequate support and may lead to increased swelling and pain.

 Express small amounts of milk to relieve pressure.

Milk expression (whether manually or with a pump) stimulates further milk production and prolongs engorgement. For a mother who is bottle-feeding, it is best to avoid expressing milk so that lactation can naturally suppress over time.

Summary:

Engorgement in a bottle-feeding mother should be managed with cold compresses, a supportive bra, and avoidance of breast stimulation
to help decrease swelling and discomfort. Since warm water and milk expression stimulate milk production, they are not recommended for a mother who is not breastfeeding. Wearing a loose-fitting bra does not provide adequate support. 


4.

A client with no prenatal care arrives at the labor unit screaming, "The baby is coming!" The nurse performs a vaginal examination that reveals the cervix is 3 centimeters dilated and 75% effaced. What additional information is most important for the nurse to obtain

  • gravidity and parity

  • time and amount of last oral intake

  • date of last normal menstrual period

  • frequency and intensity of contractions

Explanation

Correct Answer:  Frequency and intensity of contractions.

Explanation:

In a client with no prenatal care
who arrives screaming that the baby is coming, the priority is to assess the stage and progression of labor. Since the cervix is only 3 cm dilated and 75% effaced, the client is likely in early labor, but the intensity and frequency of contractions will help determine if labor is progressing rapidly toward delivery. If contractions are frequent and strong, the cervix may be dilating quickly, and immediate preparations for delivery may be needed. If contractions are mild and irregular, the client may not be in active labor yet. Since precipitous labor (rapid birth within 3 hours) is a possibility, determining contraction frequency and strength is the most critical assessment.

Explanation of Incorrect Options:

 Gravidity and parity.

While gravidity (total pregnancies) and parity (number of births) are important for understanding risk factors (e.g., multiparous women may have faster labors), this is not the most urgent information compared to contraction assessment, which helps determine immediate care needs.

Time and amount of last oral intake.

This is relevant if the client requires anesthesia or a C-section, but since she is already in labor, the focus should be on assessing labor progression first.

Date of last normal menstrual period.

This helps estimate gestational age, which is important for newborn care, but it does not take priority over assessing contractions when determining if labor is progressing rapidly.

Summary:

The most important
immediate assessment is the frequency and intensity of contractions, as this determines labor progression and urgency of delivery. Other factors, such as gravidity, parity, and last menstrual period, are useful but are not as urgent in this scenario.


5.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who is postpartum about resuming sexual activity. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching

  • You should use a water soluble gel for lubrication

  • You can resume sexual activity in 10 days

  • Your physical reaction to sexual stimulation will not be altered

  • You will not ovulate for 3 months after delivery

Explanation

Correct Answer: You should use a water-soluble gel for lubrication

Explanation:

Postpartum hormonal changes, particularly a decrease in estrogen
, can lead to vaginal dryness, making sexual activity uncomfortable. Water-soluble lubricants help reduce discomfort and improve vaginal moisture without interfering with healing. This is especially important for breastfeeding mothers, as prolactin suppresses estrogen levels, further contributing to dryness.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

You can resume sexual activity in 10 days

This is incorrect because most healthcare providers recommend waiting at least 4 to 6 weeks
before resuming sexual activity. This timeframe allows the uterus, cervix, and perineal tissues to heal, reducing the risk of infection, bleeding, or discomfort. Clients who had an episiotomy or perineal lacerations may need additional time before feeling comfortable engaging in intercourse.

Your physical reaction to sexual stimulation will not be altered

This is incorrect because postpartum hormonal changes, fatigue, and physical recovery
can alter sexual desire and response. Many postpartum clients experience reduced libido, vaginal dryness, or discomfort due to hormonal fluctuations and exhaustion from newborn care. Emotional and psychological factors, such as body image concerns or anxiety about pain, may also impact sexual response.

You will not ovulate for 3 months after delivery

This is incorrect because ovulation can resume as early as 3 weeks postpartum
, even before the first menstrual period. Ovulation timing varies among individuals, and breastfeeding is not a reliable contraceptive method unless specific criteria (exclusive breastfeeding, baby under 6 months, amenorrhea) are met (lactational amenorrhea method). Clients should be counseled on contraceptive options if they do not wish to become pregnant soon after delivery.

Summary:

 Using a water-soluble lubricant helps alleviate vaginal dryness, making intercourse more comfortable. The other options are incorrect because sexual activity should not resume until at least 4 to 6 weeks postpartum, postpartum hormones can affect sexual response, and ovulation can return much earlier than 3 months, leading to an unplanned pregnancy if contraception is not used.


6.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of rheumatic disease, but no physical symptoms prior to pregnancy. The client begins to experience dyspnea, orthopnea, and pulmonary edema. Which of the following biological alterations explains this change

  • Increased maternal weight

  • Increased blood volume

  • Change in hematocrit levels

  • Change in heart size

Explanation

Correct Answer: Increased blood volume

Explanation:

During pregnancy, a significant increase in blood volume
occurs to support fetal development. By the third trimester, maternal blood volume increases by 30 to 50 percent. This extra circulating volume places additional strain on the cardiovascular system, particularly in individuals with a history of rheumatic heart disease. In this client, the symptoms of dyspnea (difficulty breathing), orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying down), and pulmonary edema (fluid in the lungs) suggest cardiac decompensation due to volume overload. The weakened heart is unable to effectively pump the increased blood volume, leading to pulmonary congestion and heart failure symptoms.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

 Increased maternal weight

While weight gain is a normal part of pregnancy, it does not directly cause dyspnea, orthopnea, or pulmonary edema
in a person with rheumatic heart disease. These symptoms are more likely due to cardiac overload rather than the mechanical effects of weight gain.

Change in hematocrit levels

Hematocrit levels typically decrease
during pregnancy due to physiologic hemodilution (increased plasma volume relative to red blood cells). However, changes in hematocrit alone would not cause pulmonary edema, dyspnea, or orthopnea.

Change in heart size

The heart does experience some hypertrophy (thickening of the heart muscle) during pregnancy
, but this is an adaptive response, not a pathological one. Heart enlargement alone would not directly explain the sudden onset of heart failure symptoms. The increased blood volume is the main factor contributing to pulmonary congestion in a client with preexisting rheumatic disease.

Summary:

 Increased blood volume during pregnancy
places excessive strain on a weakened heart, leading to symptoms of cardiac decompensation. The other options (maternal weight, hematocrit changes, and heart size) do not directly explain the development of pulmonary edema and respiratory distress in this client.


7.

After each feeding, a 3-day-old newborn is spitting up large amounts of Enfamil Newborn Formula, a nonfat cow's milk formula. The pediatric healthcare provider changes the neonate's formulat to Similac Soy Isomil Formula, a soy protein isolate based infant formula. What information should the nurse provide to the mother about the newly prescribed formula

  • the new formula is a coconut milk formula used with babies with impaired fat absorption.

  • Enfamil Formula is a demineralized whey formula that is needed with diarrhea

  • The new formula is a casein protein source that is low in phenylalanine

  • Similac Soy Isomil Formula is a soy-based formula that contains sucrose

Explanation

Correct Answer: Similac Soy Isomil Formula is a soy-based formula that contains sucrose.

Explanation:

Similac Soy Isomil is a soy protein isolate-based infant formula designed for infants who may have:

Cow’s milk protein intolerance or allergy.

Lactose intolerance.

Difficulty digesting cow’s milk-based formulas.

The formula contains sucrose
as a carbohydrate source instead of lactose, making it suitable for infants who cannot tolerate lactose.

Explanation of Incorrect Options:

"The new formula is a coconut milk formula used with babies with impaired fat absorption."

Coconut milk formulas are not typically used for general infant feeding. Some specialty formulas contain medium-chain triglycerides (MCTs) derived from coconut oil for infants with fat malabsorption issues (e.g., cystic fibrosis, short bowel syndrome), but Similac Soy Isomil is not one of them.

"Enfamil Formula is a demineralized whey formula that is needed with diarrhea."

Enfamil Newborn Formula is a cow’s milk-based formula and not a demineralized whey formulaDemineralized whey formulas (e.g., extensively hydrolyzed formulas like Nutramigen or Alimentum) are used for severe milk protein allergies or gastrointestinal disorders, not simple spit-up. While diarrhea can require special formulas, Enfamil Newborn is not specifically designed for that purpose.

"The new formula is a casein protein source that is low in phenylalanine."

Casein-based formulas are used for specific metabolic disorders, such as phenylketonuria (PKU), which requires low phenylalanine intakeSimilac Soy Isomil is not casein-based; it is a soy-based formulaPhenylalanine restriction is not necessary for most infants, only those with PKU.

Summary:

Similac Soy Isomil is a soy protein isolate formula that contains sucrose instead of lactose. It is used for infants with cow’s milk intolerance or lactose intolerance. This makes Similac Soy Isomil Formula is a soy-based formula that contains sucrose the correct choice.


8.

A multigravida client arrives at the labor and delivery unit and tell the nurse that her "bag of water" has broken. The nurse identifies the presence of meconium fluid on the perineum and determines the fetal heart rate is between 140 to 150 beats/minute. What action should the nurse implement next

  • complete a sterile vaginal exam

  • take maternal temperature every 2 hours

  • prepare for an immediate cesarean birth

  • obtain sterile suction equipment

Explanation

Correct Answer: Complete a sterile vaginal exam

Explanation:

When a multigravida client reports that her "bag of water" has broken, and meconium-stained amniotic fluid is present, the nurse must first determine the fetal station and rule out cord prolapse. A sterile vaginal exam (SVE) is necessary to assess the cervical dilation, effacement, fetal station, and umbilical cord positionRisk of umbilical cord prolapse: Meconium-stained fluid may indicate fetal distress, and if the presenting part is not engaged, there is a higher risk of cord prolapse. Cord prolapse is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent fetal hypoxia. Assessment of labor progression: If the cervix is fully dilated or close to complete dilation, immediate delivery may be considered rather than waiting.

Explanation of Incorrect Options:

Take maternal temperature every 2 hours

Monitoring maternal temperature is important in cases of prolonged rupture of membranes to assess for infection (chorioamnionitis). However, since the client has just arrived and meconium-stained fluid is observed, the immediate priority is assessing fetal station and ruling out cord prolapse before focusing on infection prevention.

 Prepare for an immediate cesarean birth

A cesarean section is not immediately indicated unless there are signs of fetal distress (e.g., late decelerations, bradycardia) or complications such as cord prolapse or severe variable decelerations. Since the fetal heart rate (FHR) is 140-150 bpm, which is within normal range, the first step is to assess labor progression and fetal position with a sterile vaginal exam.

Obtain sterile suction equipment

While suction equipment should be prepared for potential meconium aspiration, it is not the first priority. If cord prolapse is present, the fetus may need immediate intervention to prevent hypoxia. Assessing the fetal station and position via vaginal exam takes priority before preparing for suctioning.

Summary:

The first priority is to perform a sterile vaginal exam to assess the cervical status, fetal station, and rule out umbilical cord prolapse. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid may indicate fetal distress, but with a normal fetal heart rate, determining whether labor is progressing safely is the most critical first step before taking further action.


9.

A couple, concerned because the woman has not been able to conceive, is referred to a healthcare provider for a fertility workup and a hysterosalpingogrphy is scheduled. Which complaint would indicate to the nurse that the woman's fallopian tubes are patent

  • back pain

  • abdominal pain

  • shoulder pain

  • leg cramps

Explanation

The correct answer is:Shoulder pain

Explanation:

Shoulder pain following a hysterosalpingography (HSG)
is a common and expected finding, and it may indicate that the woman's fallopian tubes are patent. The procedure involves injecting a contrast dye into the uterus and fallopian tubes, and if the dye flows freely through the tubes, it is considered a sign that the tubes are open or patent. Occasionally, if the dye spills out of the tubes and into the peritoneal cavity, it can cause irritation, leading to referred pain in the shoulders (known as referred shoulder pain). This happens due to the diaphragm being irritated by the contrast dye or fluid in the peritoneal cavity.

Why the other options are incorrect:

Back pain Back pain is a general symptom and not typically associated with the HSG procedure itself. While some discomfort might occur due to positioning during the procedure or a full bladder, back pain is not a specific indicator of fallopian tube patency.

Abdominal pain Abdominal pain is common during and after a hysterosalpingogram, as the procedure involves the insertion of a catheter into the uterus, and the contrast dye can cause temporary cramping or discomfort. However, it does not specifically indicate that the fallopian tubes are open or blocked. It is important to differentiate between general procedural discomfort and symptoms indicating a specific outcome like patency.

Leg cramps Leg cramps are not a typical or expected side effect of a hysterosalpingogram, nor do they provide any diagnostic information about the patency of the fallopian tubes.

Summary:

Referred shoulder pain
is a common sign that the fallopian tubes are patent after a hysterosalpingogram, which is performed to assess fertility. This pain is due to irritation of the diaphragm when the contrast dye spills into the peritoneal cavity. Other symptoms like abdominal pain, back pain, and leg cramps do not specifically indicate the status of the fallopian tubes.


10.

A vaginally delivered infant of an HIV positive mother is admitted to the newborn nursery. What intervention should the nurse perform first

  • bathe the infant with an antimicrobial soap

  • measure the head and chest circumference

  • obtain the infant's footprints

  • administer vitamin K

Explanation

Correct Answer: Bathe the infant with an antimicrobial soap.

Explanation:

Newborns delivered vaginally from HIV-positive mothers
are at risk of exposure to maternal blood and bodily fluids during delivery. The first and most critical intervention is to bathe the infant with an antimicrobial soap to remove maternal blood and secretions, reducing the risk of HIV transmission. This should be done before administering any injections or invasive procedures to prevent potential exposure through breaks in the skin. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and other health authorities recommend early bathing as a key measure to minimize perinatal transmission of HIV.

Explanation of Incorrect Options:

 "Measure the head and chest circumference."

Measuring the head and chest circumference is a routine newborn assessment
but is not the priority in this scenario. The immediate concern is reducing the risk of HIV transmission, making early bathing a higher priority.

"Obtain the infant's footprints."

Newborn footprints are used for identification
but are not urgent and should be performed after ensuring infection control measures like bathing have been completed. This procedure does not impact the risk of HIV transmission.

"Administer vitamin K."

Vitamin K is routinely given
to prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn, but it involves an injection, which could increase the risk of HIV exposure if maternal blood is still present on the infant’s skin. The infant should first be bathed to remove any maternal blood and secretions before receiving injections.

Summary:

For a newborn delivered vaginally from an HIV-positive mother
, the first priority is to bathe the infant with an antimicrobial soap to reduce the risk of HIV transmission. Other routine newborn care procedures, such as measuring head circumference, obtaining footprints, and administering vitamin K, should be done after the infant is cleaned. The correct answer is Bathe the infant with an antimicrobial soap.


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