Geri Final Exam Greater Lowell Technical School
Access The Exact Questions for Geri Final Exam Greater Lowell Technical School
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock Actual Exam Questions and Answers for Geri Final Exam Greater Lowell Technical School on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Ace Your Test with Geri Final Exam Greater Lowell Technical School Actual Questions and Solutions - Full Set
Free Geri Final Exam Greater Lowell Technical School Questions
The LPN is caring for a long-term care resident who is dependent on a mechanical lift to get out of bed. The LPN adds a foot support cushion to the care plan with the goal of avoiding foot drop. The principle the nurse is utilizing is:
-
Assisting the resident to achieve gerotranscendence.
-
Delay of deterioration.
-
Strengthening functional ability.
-
Comfort in the dying process.
Explanation
The principle of delay of deterioration focuses on preventing complications and slowing the progression of functional decline in clients who can no longer improve or regain lost abilities. For a resident who is fully dependent on a mechanical lift, the goal is not to restore function but to prevent additional problems such as foot drop, contractures, or pressure injuries from developing. Adding a foot support cushion is a preventive measure that maintains existing alignment and prevents a complication that would further reduce the resident's quality of life and functional status.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Gerotranscendence is a psychosocial theory describing a shift in perspective that some older adults experience toward greater cosmic awareness and less focus on material concerns. It is not a clinical care principle related to physical positioning or preventive interventions.
C. Strengthening functional ability refers to active efforts to improve or restore a patient's existing capabilities through restorative or rehabilitative interventions. Since this resident is fully dependent on a mechanical lift, the goal is prevention of further decline rather than enhancement of function, making this principle less applicable.
D. Comfort in the dying process relates to palliative and end-of-life care principles focused on pain management, dignity, and symptom relief in terminally ill patients. There is no indication in this scenario that the resident is in the dying process, making this principle irrelevant to the described intervention.
When an older person reports problems with urinary incontinence, the primary goal should be to:
-
Select the type of incontinence pad that will allow the older person the most freedom and protection.
-
Ensure that the older person is free from any skin breakdown.
-
Prevent urinary tract infections.
-
Identify any reversible or treatable cause of the incontinence.
Explanation
Urinary incontinence in older adults is not an inevitable consequence of aging and should never be dismissed as such. The primary and most clinically important goal is to identify whether the incontinence has a reversible or treatable underlying cause, such as a urinary tract infection, medication side effects, constipation, atrophic vaginitis, delirium, or restricted mobility. Addressing the root cause has the potential to restore continence entirely, making it far more beneficial than managing symptoms alone.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Selecting incontinence pads is a management strategy that addresses the symptom rather than the underlying cause. While protective products have a role in maintaining comfort and dignity, choosing a pad as the primary goal means accepting incontinence as permanent without first investigating whether it can be reversed or treated.
B. Preventing skin breakdown is an important ongoing care concern associated with incontinence, but it is a secondary goal focused on managing complications rather than addressing the incontinence itself. It should be part of the care plan but is not the primary goal.
C. Preventing urinary tract infections is a relevant concern in incontinent older adults, but it is a preventive complication-management goal rather than the primary clinical objective. Identifying and treating the cause of incontinence takes precedence over infection prevention strategies.
The LPN is caring for an 80-year-old female resident who is currently taking furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg bid, digoxin (Lanoxin) 125 mcg daily, and propranolol (Inderal) 20 mg daily. Which of the following laboratory values would be the primary concern to the nurse?
-
Sodium level 134 mEq/L (135-145 mEq/L).
-
Potassium level 2.5 mEq/L (3.5-5.2 mmol/L).
-
Serum creatinine of 1.3 mg/dL (0.7-1.3 mg/dL).
-
Glucose level of 135 mg/dl (70-99 mg/dL).
Explanation
A potassium level of 2.5 mEq/L is critically low and represents severe hypokalemia. This is the primary concern in this client because furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic that significantly increases the risk of hypokalemia. More critically, hypokalemia dramatically increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin has a narrow therapeutic index, and low potassium levels sensitize the myocardium to digoxin's toxic effects, potentially causing life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. The combination of furosemide-induced hypokalemia and concurrent digoxin therapy makes this laboratory value a critical safety priority requiring immediate reporting and intervention.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. A sodium level of 134 mEq/L is mildly below the normal range, indicating mild hyponatremia. While this warrants monitoring, it is not as immediately life-threatening as the critically low potassium level in the context of concurrent digoxin therapy.
C. A serum creatinine of 1.3 mg/dL falls at the upper limit of the normal range and may reflect mild renal insufficiency, which is worth monitoring in an older adult on diuretic therapy. However, it does not represent the same level of acute danger as the potassium level in this clinical scenario.
D. A glucose level of 135 mg/dL is mildly elevated above the normal fasting range, which may indicate hyperglycemia or a non-fasting specimen. While this warrants follow-up, it does not represent an acute life-threatening emergency comparable to severe hypokalemia in a client on digoxin.
The nurse scans an older adult patient's identification bracelet before administering multiple medications. The electronic medication administration record (eMAR) alerts the nurse that one of the medication doses exceeds the recommended renal dose. What is the nurse's priority action?
-
Administer half the dose.
-
Override the warning because the medication is prescribed.
-
Hold the medication and clarify the order with the RN/provider.
-
Ask the patient whether they have taken the medication before.
Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Hold the medication and clarify the order with the RN/provider.
When the eMAR generates a clinical alert indicating that a prescribed dose exceeds the recommended renal dosing threshold, the nurse must hold the medication and contact the prescribing provider or supervising RN before administration. Older adults commonly experience age-related declines in renal function, which reduces drug clearance and increases the risk of toxic drug accumulation. The alert exists precisely to prevent patient harm, and proceeding without clarification would be a violation of safe medication administration principles and the nurse's professional responsibility.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Independently administering half the dose without a provider order constitutes an unauthorized medication change. Nurses do not have the authority to alter prescribed doses on their own clinical judgment, regardless of their concern. Any dose modification requires a new or revised order from the prescriber.
B. Overriding a clinical safety alert solely because a medication is prescribed ignores the purpose of the eMAR safety system. A prescription does not automatically account for the patient's current renal function, and overriding the alert without clinical justification and provider authorization puts the patient at serious risk of harm.
D. Asking the patient whether they have taken the medication before does not address the safety concern raised by the alert. The patient's prior experience with the medication is irrelevant to the current issue of a dose that exceeds the renal dosing recommendation for this specific clinical situation.
A 74-year-old man complains of insomnia and of always feeling tired. He has been diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and congestive heart failure. What would you suggest to help him sleep better?
-
Tell him to lie only on his side.
-
Take antacids before bed to relieve acid reflux.
-
Raise the head of the bed so that the upper body is elevated.
-
Take a long-lasting analgesic before bed.
Explanation
Elevating the head of the bed addresses both of this client's primary diagnoses simultaneously. For GERD, head elevation prevents gastric acid from refluxing into the esophagus during sleep by using gravity to keep stomach contents in place, reducing nighttime heartburn and acid-related sleep disruption. For congestive heart failure, elevating the upper body reduces venous return to the heart, decreases pulmonary congestion, and alleviates orthopnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, all of which are common causes of sleep disturbance in heart failure patients. This single intervention therapeutically benefits both conditions and is the most appropriate recommendation.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Lying only on the side may offer modest positional benefit for GERD in some individuals, but it does not address the respiratory and cardiac symptoms associated with congestive heart failure that are likely contributing to this client's insomnia and fatigue. It is also a less effective and evidence-based intervention than head of bed elevation for either condition.
B. Taking antacids before bed may provide short-term relief of acid reflux symptoms but does not address the congestive heart failure component of the client's sleep disturbance. Antacids manage symptoms rather than treating the underlying mechanism contributing to nighttime awakening and do not represent the most comprehensive sleep intervention for this client.
D. A long-lasting analgesic before bed is not indicated in this scenario because the client has not reported pain as a contributing factor to his insomnia. Administering analgesics without a pain-related indication is unnecessary and could expose the client to side effects such as gastrointestinal irritation, which would worsen his GERD symptoms.
A 78-year-old who lives alone and is being discharged from the hospital on warfarin after total hip replacement surgery. His sister is staying with him for one week. What care professional referrals would you make for the client? Choose all that apply.
-
Physical therapy
-
Occupational therapy
-
Dietician
-
Skilled nursing
-
Speech therapist
Explanation
Correct Answers: (A) Physical therapy, (B) Occupational therapy, (C) Dietician, and (D) Skilled nursing.
Physical therapy is essential following total hip replacement surgery to restore mobility, strength, and safe ambulation, teach hip precautions, and reduce the risk of falls and complications during the recovery period at home.
Occupational therapy is appropriate to assess the client's ability to safely perform activities of daily living with hip precautions in place, recommend adaptive equipment such as raised toilet seats and long-handled grabbers, and modify the home environment to support safe independent functioning.
A dietician is warranted because the client is on warfarin, which is significantly affected by dietary vitamin K intake. A dietician can provide individualized counseling on maintaining a consistent diet to support stable INR levels and reduce the risk of bleeding or clotting complications.
Skilled nursing is necessary to monitor the surgical wound, assess for signs of infection or deep vein thrombosis, manage warfarin therapy including INR monitoring, provide medication education, and coordinate ongoing care during the early post-discharge period when the client is living alone with only temporary family support.
Why the other options are incorrect:
E. Speech therapy addresses communication disorders, cognitive-linguistic deficits, and swallowing difficulties. Nothing in this clinical scenario indicates that the client has any speech, language, or swallowing concerns that would necessitate a speech therapy referral following hip replacement surgery.
Which will happen if the nurse gets involved in a power struggle with an autocratic leader?
-
You will be seen as an individual.
-
Your individual needs will be met.
-
Lose/Lose.
-
You will win and your ideas will be praised by your leader.
Explanation
An autocratic leader maintains strict control over decision-making and does not welcome challenges to their authority. When a nurse engages in a power struggle with an autocratic leader, the outcome is invariably a lose/lose situation. The nurse risks professional repercussions, damaged relationships, and a hostile work environment, while the leader and the team both suffer from decreased morale, reduced collaboration, and a toxic workplace dynamic. The most effective strategy when working under an autocratic leader is to avoid direct power struggles and instead use appropriate channels such as chain of command, advocacy, or professional organizations to address concerns.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Autocratic leaders do not focus on recognizing or valuing individual team members. Engaging in a power struggle would not result in the nurse being seen as an individual but would more likely result in the nurse being viewed as insubordinate or disruptive.
B. Individual needs are not a priority for autocratic leaders, whose leadership style centers on task completion and authority. A power struggle would not result in personal needs being acknowledged or met and would likely produce the opposite outcome.
D. Winning a power struggle against an autocratic leader and having one's ideas praised is not a realistic outcome. Autocratic leaders do not relinquish control or offer praise as a result of being challenged, and such a confrontation is far more likely to result in conflict and professional consequences than recognition.
With incontinence training for bladder control, the nurse should:
-
Increase fluids during the daytime hours and toilet every 1000 mls.
-
Restrict fluids during the nighttime hours and toilet the patient at his or her request.
-
Increase fluids, especially during the evening hours, and toilet the patient every 4 hours.
-
Increase fluids during the daytime hours and toilet patient every two hours.
Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Increase fluids during the daytime hours and toilet patient every two hours.
Bladder training for incontinence involves encouraging adequate fluid intake during daytime hours to maintain bladder tone and establish a predictable voiding pattern, while avoiding excessive evening fluids to reduce nocturia. Toileting the patient on a scheduled basis every two hours establishes a consistent routine that helps retrain the bladder, reduces urgency episodes, and prevents incontinence by ensuring the bladder does not become overfull between voidings. This structured, time-based approach is the foundation of evidence-based bladder retraining programs.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Toileting every 1000 mls is not a standard or clinically recognized approach to bladder training. Toileting schedules are based on time intervals rather than fluid volume thresholds, making this an impractical and unsupported method.
B. Toileting the patient only at their request is a reactive rather than a proactive strategy and does not constitute structured bladder training. Patients with incontinence often have impaired urgency recognition, making self-initiated toileting insufficient to retrain the bladder effectively.
C. Increasing fluids during the evening hours is counterproductive for bladder training because it increases the likelihood of nighttime incontinence and nocturia. Fluids should be encouraged during the day and tapered in the evening to promote nighttime continence.
During a home visit the nurse learns that an older patient recovering from total knee replacement surgery has not been performing daily exercises as prescribed. What action should the nurse take first?
-
Document that the patient is noncompliant with the prescribed medical plan.
-
Reinforce the safe use of the walker for ambulation.
-
Find out why the patient is not motivated to do the exercises.
-
Schedule the physical therapist to return to the home to try again.
Explanation
Before taking any action, the nurse must first assess the reason behind the patient's non-adherence to the prescribed exercise regimen. The cause may be pain, fear of injury, misunderstanding of the instructions, depression, lack of social support, or a physical barrier such as fatigue or equipment issues. Identifying the underlying reason is essential to developing an individualized and effective intervention. Assessment always precedes intervention in the nursing process, and labeling the patient as noncompliant or scheduling additional services without first understanding the barrier is premature and potentially ineffective.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Documenting noncompliance without first exploring the reason is a judgmental and premature action. The term noncompliant does not reflect the complexity of patient behavior and fails to account for the multiple factors that may be preventing the patient from completing the exercises. Assessment must occur before documentation of a conclusion.
B. Reinforcing walker safety is an important component of post-surgical home care but does not address the specific issue of why the prescribed exercises are not being performed. Providing instruction before understanding the barrier may not result in any change in the patient's behavior.
D. Scheduling the physical therapist to return without first identifying why the patient is not exercising does not guarantee a different outcome and may waste resources if the underlying barrier is not addressed. The nurse's first responsibility is to assess the situation before escalating to additional services.
Once competency has been confirmed, which tasks can be safely delegated to the UAP?
-
Initial teaching of incentive spirometer — Safe to Delegate or Do Not Delegate?
-
Taking vital signs — Safe to Delegate or Do Not Delegate?
-
Documenting emesis count — Safe to Delegate or Do Not Delegate?
-
Application of nystatin powder to the groin — Safe to Delegate or Do Not Delegate?
-
Assessing CSM of casted ankle/foot — Safe to Delegate or Do Not Delegate?
Explanation
Correct Answers:
A. Initial teaching of incentive spirometer — Do Not Delegate B. Taking vital signs — Safe to Delegate C. Documenting emesis count — Safe to Delegate D. Application of nystatin powder to the groin — Safe to Delegate E. Assessing CSM of casted ankle/foot — Do Not Delegate
Patient teaching is a professional nursing responsibility that requires clinical knowledge, judgment, and the ability to evaluate patient understanding and response. Initial teaching of the incentive spirometer involves assessment and education, both of which fall outside the UAP scope of practice and must never be delegated. Assessing circulation, sensation, and movement of a casted extremity is a clinical assessment skill requiring nursing judgment to detect neurovascular compromise, a potentially limb-threatening complication, and cannot be performed by a UAP. Taking vital signs is a routine, clearly defined task that UAPs are trained and competent to perform once their competency has been confirmed. Documenting emesis count is an observational and recording task that is within the UAP's scope as long as the nurse interprets and acts on the clinical findings. Application of nystatin powder to the groin is a basic skin care and topical application task that, once the nurse has assessed the area and determined the plan of care, can be safely delegated to a competent UAP.
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .