Nur 255 B Adult Health 1 CBU

Nur 255 B Adult Health 1 CBU

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Free Nur 255 B Adult Health 1 CBU Questions

1.

You are the nurse caring for the 25-year-old victim of a motor vehicle accident with a fractured pelvis and a ruptured bladder. The nurse's aide (NA) tells you that she is concerned because the patient's resting heart rate is 110 beats per minute, her respirations are 24 breaths per minute, temperature is 99.1°F axillary, and the blood pressure is 125/85 mm Hg. What other information is most important as you assess this patient's physiologic status?

 

  • The patient's understanding of pain physiology

  • The patient's serum glucose level

  • The patient's white blood cell count

  • The patient's rating of her pain

Explanation

Correct Answer: The patient's rating of her pain

In a patient with a fractured pelvis and a ruptured bladder, the signs of tachycardia (resting heart rate of 110 beats per minute) and tachypnea (respirations of 24 breaths per minute) could be indicative of pain or acute stress.

These vital signs may be compensatory responses to severe pain, blood loss, or trauma-related stress. Given that the patient is likely in significant discomfort due to these injuries, pain assessment is crucial to understand the severity of the patient’s condition and guide appropriate management.

Assessing the patient's pain level
will help determine if the vital signs are a reflection of pain, which is common in trauma situations, or if there is an underlying complication (e.g., shock, infection, or blood loss).

Why the other options are Not Correct:

The patient's understanding of pain physiology: While understanding pain is important for long-term care, it is less urgent than directly assessing and managing the patient's pain right now, especially given the significant trauma.

The patient's serum glucose level: Glucose levels are important in patients with diabetes or other conditions that might affect glucose metabolism, but in this acute trauma situation, the primary concern is pain management and possible internal bleeding or shock rather than glucose regulation.

The patient's white blood cell count: Although an elevated white blood cell count could suggest infection, it is not the most pressing concern in the early phase after trauma. The priority at this moment is to assess and manage pain, and further diagnostic testing (like labs) can be done as part of ongoing monitoring.

Key Point:

In trauma patients, pain
is a major concern and can manifest with signs such as tachycardia and tachypnea. Ensuring the patient’s pain is well-managed is critical, and it will provide essential information about the severity of the patient's condition and potential complications.


2.

The nurse is concerned that a patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of local inflammation. What did the nurse assess to come to this conclusion?

  • Leg edema, tachycardia, leg cool to touch

  • Leg edema, severe pain from swelling and erythema

  • Increased HR, hypotension, cold-moist skin

  • T 101.8, diaphoresis, HR 120

Explanation

Correct Answer: Leg edema, severe pain from swelling and erythema

Local inflammation typically involves the body's response to injury, infection, or irritation, resulting in the classic signs of redness (erythema), heat, swelling (edema), and pain.

The symptoms in option B, including leg edema
, severe pain, and erythema, are indicative of local inflammation.

Leg edema: Swelling occurs due to fluid accumulation from increased vascular permeability during inflammation.

Severe pain: Pain is a hallmark of inflammation, often due to pressure from the swelling or the release of inflammatory mediators.

Erythema (redness): Increased blood flow to the affected area causes redness, which is a common sign of local inflammation.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

Leg edema, tachycardia, leg cool to touch:

While leg edema is present, tachycardia and coolness to touch suggest systemic involvement (such as shock or a circulatory problem) rather than local inflammation. Inflammation would more likely cause warmth, not coolness.

Increased HR, hypotension, cold-moist skin:

These signs are more indicative of systemic issues, such as sepsis or shock, rather than localized inflammation. Local inflammation doesn't typically cause systemic symptoms like increased heart rate, hypotension, or cold skin.

T 101.8, diaphoresis, HR 120:

These symptoms suggest fever and systemic infection, not localized inflammation. The fever and elevated HR are more likely signs of systemic infection, such as sepsis, which involves the whole body, not just a localized area.

Summary:

Local inflammation is most accurately identified by signs like edema, pain, and erythema in the affected area, as described in option B.


3.

The nurse caring for a patient receiving a transfusion notes that 15 minutes after the infusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) has begun, the patient is having difficulty breathing and complains of severe chest tightness. What is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse to take?

  • Notify the patient's physician

  • Stop the transfusion immediately

  • Remove the patient's IV access

  • Assess the patient's chest sounds and vital signs

Explanation

Correct Answer: Stop the transfusion immediately

When a patient exhibits signs of a transfusion reaction, such as difficulty breathing and severe chest tightness, it is crucial to stop the transfusion immediately.

This is because the patient may be having a severe allergic reaction
or hemolytic transfusion reaction, both of which can be life-threatening.

Why the other options are incorrect:

Notify the patient's physician: While notifying the physician is important, it is not the initial action. The priority is to stop the transfusion to prevent further harm to the patient.

Remove the patient's IV access: Removing the IV access is not necessary at this point, as the focus should be on stopping the transfusion and then managing the reaction. The IV should remain open for emergency interventions if necessary.

Assess the patient's chest sounds and vital signs: Although it is important to assess the patient’s condition, the first priority is to stop the transfusion to prevent worsening of the reaction. Once the transfusion is stopped, the nurse can then assess the patient's vital signs and lung sounds.

Key Point:

The most immediate priority when a transfusion reaction is suspected is to stop the transfusion
to prevent further exposure to the blood product. After stopping the transfusion, the nurse should notify the physician, assess the patient, and provide supportive care as needed.


4.

The nurse should anticipate an order for erythropoietin administration for which patient?

  • An older infant who is exclusively breastfed and has not started solid food yet.

  • A strict vegetarian who is new to this type of diet

  • A pregnant woman with iron deficiency anemia

  • A patient with chronic renal failure and severe anemia

Explanation

Correct Answer: A patient with chronic renal failure and severe anemia

Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys that stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow.

Chronic renal failure can impair the kidneys' ability to produce erythropoietin, leading to anemia. In such cases, the patient may be given synthetic erythropoietin to help stimulate red blood cell production and correct the anemia associated with renal failure.

Why the Other Options Are Wrong:

An older infant who is exclusively breastfed and has not started solid food yet

An infant who is exclusively breastfed may be at risk for iron deficiency anemia
, but this condition is generally not treated with erythropoietin. Iron supplementation is typically used to treat iron deficiency anemia in infants. Erythropoietin is more commonly used for anemia related to chronic kidney disease or other conditions where erythropoietin production is insufficient.

A strict vegetarian who is new to this type of diet

A strict vegetarian
may develop anemia due to a lack of iron or vitamin B12 in their diet, but erythropoietin would not be the first-line treatment. The anemia here is more likely to be treated with iron or vitamin B12 supplementation, depending on the type of deficiency. Erythropoietin is used in cases where the bone marrow's ability to produce red blood cells is impaired.

A pregnant woman with iron deficiency anemia

Iron deficiency anemia is common during pregnancy, and it is typically treated with iron supplements rather than erythropoietin. Erythropoietin is not the standard treatment for iron deficiency anemia, as it does not address the underlying cause (iron deficiency).

Summary:

Erythropoietin is used to treat anemia caused by insufficient erythropoietin production, which is commonly seen in chronic renal failure. While other conditions, like iron deficiency anemia, may require other treatments such as iron supplementation, erythropoietin is indicated in cases where the kidneys are unable to produce enough erythropoietin to stimulate red blood cell production.


5.

The nurse writes a diagnosis of altered tissue perfusion with the client diagnosed with anemia. Which interventions should be included in the plan of care? Select All That Apply.

 

  • Allow for rest periods during the day for the client

  • Move the client to a room near the nurse's desk

  • Monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit

  • Assess the client for numbness and tingling

  • Limit the client's dietary intake of green vegetables

Explanation

Correct Answers:

Allow for rest periods during the day for the client


Fatigue is a common symptom of anemia due to decreased oxygen delivery. Providing rest periods helps reduce exertion and conserves energy.

Move the client to a room near the nurse's desk

This facilitates frequent monitoring and rapid intervention if complications such as syncope or falls occur due to poor tissue oxygenation.

Monitor the client's hemoglobin and hematocrit

These values provide key insights into the severity of anemia and guide treatment effectiveness and decisions regarding interventions such as transfusions or iron therapy.

Assess the client for numbness and tingling

Paresthesia can occur in certain types of anemia (e.g., vitamin B12 deficiency) and may indicate neurologic compromise from insufficient oxygenation or nutrient deficits.

Incorrect Answers:

Limit the client's dietary intake of green vegetables


This is inappropriate. Green leafy vegetables are rich in folate and iron, both essential for red blood cell production. Limiting them would be counterproductive in managing anemia.

6.

You are explaining to a new graduate the components connected to safely administering blood products. Which is the only accepted IV solution that is compatible with blood to prime the tubing?

  • D5W

  • LR

  • 0.9 NS

  • 5.45 NS

Explanation

Correct Answer: 0.9 NS (Normal Saline)

The only accepted IV solution that is compatible with blood products is 0.9% Normal Saline (0.9 NS).

This isotonic solution maintains the integrity of the blood cells during transfusion, and it is used to prime the tubing and flush the IV line before and after the transfusion.


Why the other options are incorrect:

D5W (Dextrose 5% in Water): D5W is not compatible with blood products because the dextrose can cause red blood cells to hemolyze (break apart), which can lead to serious complications.

LR (Lactated Ringer's): Lactated Ringer’s is also not compatible with blood products because it contains calcium, which can interact with the citrate in the blood and potentially lead to clotting or other complications.

D5.45 NS (Dextrose 5% in 0.45% Normal Saline): This solution is not recommended because the dextrose can also cause hemolysis, and the hypotonic nature of the solution is not suitable for blood transfusion.

Key Point:

When administering blood products, it is critical to only use 0.9% Normal Saline
to prevent reactions that could harm the patient.


7.

You are developing the plan of care for a patient who just returned from surgery who has a history of chronic pain. Your interventions are based on the knowledge that chronic pain is most effectively relieved when analgesics are administered in what matter?

  •  Only on a PRN basis

  • Conservatively

  • Around the clock (ATC)

  • Intramuscularly

Explanation

Correct Answer: Around the clock (ATC)

Chronic pain is best managed with around-the-clock (ATC) analgesia because this method ensures consistent pain relief, preventing the pain from becoming severe between doses. Chronic pain, especially after surgery, requires a continuous supply of pain relief to keep the pain levels stable and avoid episodes of severe discomfort.

ATC administration is typically used for ongoing pain management and helps to maintain steady plasma levels of the analgesic, thereby preventing breakthrough pain.


Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

Only on a PRN basis:

PRN (as needed) analgesics are useful for acute pain or pain that is intermittent, but for chronic pain, a scheduled, continuous regimen (like ATC) is more effective in managing pain consistently.

Conservatively:

While conservative approaches might be appropriate in certain circumstances, managing chronic pain effectively requires adequate pain control, and "conservative" is too vague and doesn't directly address pain management.

Intramuscularly:

While intramuscular (IM) injections may be used in some cases, they are typically not the preferred method for managing chronic pain. Oral or IV medications are generally more appropriate for chronic pain, and IM injections can be less convenient and more painful for the patient.

Summary:

For chronic pain
, the most effective approach is to administer analgesics around the clock (ATC) to maintain consistent pain relief, which prevents pain from escalating. Therefore, the correct intervention is Around the clock (ATC).


8.

A client who has had abdominal surgery complains of feeling as though "something gave way" in the incisional site. The nurse removes the dressing and notes the presence of a loop of bowel protruding through the incision. Which nursing interventions should the nurse take? Select All That Apply

  • Place the client in a prone position

  • Contact the surgeon

  • Instruct the client to remain still

  • Place a sterile saline dressing over the wound

  • Close the wound

Explanation

Correct Answers:

Contact the surgeon

Instruct the client to remain still


Place a sterile saline dressing over the wound


The scenario describes a dehiscence (a wound opening) and evisceration (the protrusion of bowel through the wound) following abdominal surgery. This is a medical emergency and requires immediate intervention.

Contact the surgeon:

The surgeon should be immediately notified when there is evisceration. This situation requires surgical intervention to repair the incision and prevent complications such as infection or further damage.

Instruct the client to remain still:

It is crucial that the client remains still to prevent further strain on the wound and the protruding bowel, which could worsen the condition or lead to additional complications.

Place a sterile saline dressing over the wound:

The exposed bowel should be covered with a sterile saline dressing to keep it moist and protected from infection. This dressing helps prevent drying and potential injury to the bowel until the client can be seen by the surgeon.

Why the Other Options Are Wrong:

Place the client in a prone position:

The client should not be placed in the prone position (lying face down). It would be uncomfortable, and it may worsen the evisceration. Instead, the client should be kept in a low Fowler’s position (head of the bed elevated slightly or flat) to relieve pressure on the abdominal incision.

Close the wound:

The nurse should not attempt to close the wound. The wound needs to be addressed by the surgeon, and trying to close it could result in further harm or infection. The priority is to protect the exposed bowel and prepare the client for surgical intervention.

Summary:

In the event of evisceration following abdominal surgery, the nurse should contact the surgeon,
instruct the client to remain still, and cover the exposed bowel with a sterile saline dressing. The nurse should avoid placing the client in a prone position or attempting to close the wound.


9.

A medical nurse is providing palliative care to a patient with a diagnosis of end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). What is the primary goal of this nurse's care?

  • To improve the patient's and family's quality of life

  • To support aggressive and innovative treatments for cure

  • To decrease the patient's anxiety and provide physical support

  • To help the patient develop a separate plan with each discipline of the healthcare team

Explanation

Correct Answer: To improve the patient's and family's quality of life

Palliative care focuses on enhancing the quality of life for patients with life-limiting illnesses, such as end-stage COPD.

The goal is not curative but supportive, addressing physical, emotional, social, and spiritual needs. It also extends to providing support and resources for the family during this challenging time.


Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

To support aggressive and innovative treatments for cure:

In palliative care, the focus is on comfort and symptom management, not curative or aggressive treatments, especially in end-stage illnesses.


To decrease the patient's anxiety and provide physical support:

While managing anxiety and physical symptoms are important components, they are not the primary goal. The overall aim is broader, addressing all aspects of quality of life.


To help the patient develop a separate plan with each discipline of the health care team:

Palliative care promotes a collaborative, interdisciplinary approach, but the focus is not on developing separate plans. Instead, it involves a unified care plan tailored to the patient's and family's needs.


Summary:

The primary goal of palliative care is to improve the quality of life for both the patient and their family by addressing comprehensive needs, including symptom management, emotional support, and preparation for end-of-life care.


10.

A patient has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. What nursing diagnosis will be applicable?

  • Acute pain

  • Risk for fall

  • Depression

  • Imbalanced nutrition

Explanation

Correct Answer: Imbalanced nutrition

Iron deficiency anemia is often associated with a nutritional deficiency in iron, which is necessary for producing hemoglobin. This can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, pallor, and weakness.

Imbalanced nutrition, related to insufficient iron intake or impaired iron absorption, is the most applicable nursing diagnosis for a patient with iron deficiency anemia.

Why the Other Options Are Wrong:

Acute pain

While patients with anemia might experience discomfort due to symptoms like fatigue or dizziness, acute pain
is not a primary concern with iron deficiency anemia unless it’s secondary to a specific condition like ulcers or gastrointestinal bleeding. Pain is not typically a defining characteristic of iron deficiency anemia.

Risk for fall

Although fatigue and
weakness from anemia can contribute to a higher risk for falls, the primary nursing diagnosis would focus on nutrition as the cause (insufficient iron intake), not the risk of falls. However, fall risk may still be an important secondary consideration.

Depression

Although the symptoms of anemia (fatigue, weakness, etc.) can sometimes mimic symptoms of depression
, depression is not a direct consequence of iron deficiency anemia. Imbalanced nutrition would be more appropriate since it directly addresses the underlying cause (iron deficiency).

Summary:

The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient with iron deficiency anemia is Imbalanced nutrition
due to inadequate iron intake or absorption. Other diagnoses such as acute pain, risk for fall, and depression may be secondary concerns but do not address the root cause of the condition. Imbalanced nutrition is the priority diagnosis because it focuses on the nutritional deficiency contributing to the anemia.


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