ATI RN VATI Comprehensive Predictor
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Free ATI RN VATI Comprehensive Predictor Questions
A nurse is observing bonding between a client and her newborn. Which of the following actions by the client requires the nurse to intervene?
- A. Holding the newborn in an en face position
- B. Asking the father to change the newborn’s diaper
- C. Viewing the newborn’s actions to be uncooperative
- D. Requesting the nurse take the newborn to the nursery so she can rest
Explanation
C. Viewing the newborn’s actions to be uncooperative:
Describing a newborn as “uncooperative” signals maladaptive bonding. Newborns do not have
intentional behaviors; interpreting their cues as negative reflects impaired attachment and
potential difficulty forming a nurturing relationship. This requires the nurse to intervene by
offering education about newborn behavior, supporting maternal confidence, and promoting
healthy bonding interactions.
A nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel?
- A. A client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and needs guidance on incentive spirometry
- B. A client who had a myocardial infarction 3 days ago and reports chest discomfort
- C. A client who had a stroke 2 days ago and needs help toileting
- D. A client who has awoken following a bronchoscopy and requests a drink
Explanation
Helping a stable client with toileting is an appropriate task for assistive personnel. This activity
is routine, noninvasive, requires no clinical judgment, and does not involve teaching or
assessment. A client 2 days post-stroke who simply needs physical assistance with ADLs falls
safely within the AP’s scope of practice.
A nurse is assessing a full-term newborn who is 24 hr old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. The newborn's neck is short and surrounded by skin folds.
- B. The newborn's glucose level is 50 mg/dL.
- C. The newborn's sclerae have a yellowish tint.
- D. The newborn has experienced a weight loss of 3% since birth.
Explanation
A yellowish tint to the sclerae at 24 hours indicates early-onset jaundice, which may be caused
by hemolysis, infection, or liver dysfunction. Jaundice appearing before 24–48 hours is
considered pathologic and requires immediate evaluation for rising bilirubin levels and risk of
kernicterus. Early reporting allows prompt testing and interventions such as phototherapy to
prevent serious complications.
At the beginning of the day shift, a team leader delegates the following tasks to the assistive personnel (AP): bathe four clients, distribute fresh water, and obtain the morning vital signs. At noon, the nurse asks the AP to transport one client to physical therapy. The AP reports two clients still need bed baths. Which of the following is an appropriate strategy for the nurse to delegate more effectively in the future?
- A. Plan a more reasonable job assignment.
- B. Co-assign a more qualified individual to assist the AP.
- C. Set a clear time frame for the completion of each task.
- D. Volunteer to give the baths for the AP.
Explanation
C. Set a clear time frame for the completion of each task:
Effective delegation requires specific expectations, including deadlines for task completion.
Giving time frames (e.g., “complete all morning baths by 1100”) helps the AP prioritize and
organize the workload. This prevents delays, enhances accountability, and ensures tasks are
completed before additional assignments are added.
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving enteral feedings via a gastrostomy tube. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings indicates fluid overload?
- A. Diminished bowel sounds
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypotension
- D. Bounding pulses
Explanation
Bounding pulses are a classic sign of fluid volume overload. Excess circulating volume
increases the force of cardiac contractions, producing strong, forceful peripheral pulses. Clients
receiving enteral feedings are at risk for fluid overload if the feeding volume or rate exceeds their
tolerance. Recognizing bounding pulses early allows the nurse to intervene and prevent
complications such as pulmonary edema.
A nurse is assessing a client who has a calcium deficiency. The nurse should identify that the client is at risk for which of the following conditions?
- A. Tetany
- B. Anemia
- C. Kidney stones
- D. Osteoarthritis
Explanation
A. Tetany:
Calcium deficiency (hypocalcemia) increases neuromuscular excitability and can lead to tetany,
a condition characterized by muscle spasms, tingling, numbness, and positive Chvostek’s and
Trousseau’s signs. Low calcium destabilizes nerve membranes, causing involuntary muscle
contractions and cramping. Tetany is one of the most critical complications of hypocalcemia and
requires prompt correction.
A nurse manager at a public health clinic is concerned about the rising number of sexually transmitted infections in the community. The purpose of which of the following is to generate new ideas to address the public health concern?
- A. A brainstorming session with nurses
- B. A community-wide program
- C. Role playing with nurses
- D. Personal discussions with clients
Explanation
A. A brainstorming session with nurses: Brainstorming is specifically designed as a
creative group technique to generate a wide variety of new ideas and potential solutions to
a problem. By bringing nurses together for this purpose, the manager can tap into their
clinical expertise and frontline experience to develop innovative approaches to address the
rising STI rates. The other options serve different purposes: community-wide programs
implement solutions rather than generate them, role playing is for skill practice, and
personal discussions with clients focus on individual education rather than idea generation
for a public health concern.
A nurse is caring for a client who has meningitis. Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform?
- A. Homans' sign
- B. Trousseau's sign
- C. Brudzinski's sign
- D. Chvostek's sign
Explanation
Brudzinski’s sign is a classic assessment used to test for meningeal irritation, which occurs in
meningitis. To assess this sign, the nurse gently flexes the client’s neck; a positive response
occurs when the hips and knees involuntarily flex. This indicates meningeal inflammation,
helping support the diagnosis and guide immediate interventions.
A nurse in a clinic is obtaining a health history from a female client. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a risk factor for cervical cancer?
- A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
- B. Hypertension
- C. History of STIs
- D. Nulliparity
Explanation
C. History of STIs:
Cervical cancer is strongly associated with persistent infection with high-risk human
papillomavirus (HPV), which is transmitted sexually. A general history of STIs (especially
HPV, chlamydia, gonorrhea, herpes, or HIV) usually reflects increased sexual exposure and
higher likelihood of HPV infection. Chronic cervical inflammation and viral changes increase the
risk of dysplasia and eventual malignancy. Therefore, clients with a history of STIs are at
significantly higher risk and should be carefully screened with regular Pap tests and HPV testing
as recommended.
A nurse is caring for a client in an outpatient clinic. Exhibit 1 Provider Prescriptions 8 Months Ago: Ethinyl estradiol/desogestrel 1 tablet PO daily for contraception 6 Months Ago: Ferrous sulfate 120 mg PO twice daily 1 hr before meals for iron supplementation Exhibit 2 Nurses' Notes 6 Months Ago: Client reports daytime fatigue for 3 to 4 months. Drinks 1 to 2 cups of coffee early in the morning. Work schedule 0800 to 1600. Client exercises at the gym on the way home from work. Usual bedtime is 2330; awakens at 0630. Today: Client reports difficulty falling asleep at night, then awakening 1 to 2 hr after falling asleep. Has daytime fatigue. Recently changed work schedule. Works 1200 to 2000. Exercises at the gym on the way home from work and eats dinner after they shower. Usual bedtime is 2330; awakens at 0700. Client reports that they turn off phone at 2230 every night. Client drinks 2 to 3 cups of coffee early in the morning. Exhibit 3 Laboratory Results 6 Months Ago: Hct 306 (37% to 47%) Hgb 9 g/dL (12 to 16 g/dL) Today: Hct 38% (37% to 47%) Hgb 13 g/dL (12 to 16 g/dL) Select the 2 findings the nurse should identify as factors that may interfere with the client's sleep.
- A. Bedtime
- B. Use of electronic devices
- C. Evening meal
- D. Medications
- E. Caffeine use
- F. Exercise schedule
Explanation
C. Evening meal:
The client eats dinner after exercising and showering, which occurs around 2000–2100 due to
the new work schedule ending at 2000. Eating a full meal close to bedtime (2330) interferes with
the ability to fall asleep because digestion increases metabolic activity and can cause discomfort,
reflux, or stimulation that delays sleep onset. Late meals disrupt circadian rhythms and reduce
sleep quality, contributing to nighttime awakenings and daytime fatigue.
F. Exercise schedule:
The client performs vigorous exercise on the way home from a 1200–2000 shift, placing their
workouts late in the evening. Exercising too close to bedtime increases heart rate, body
temperature, and cortisol levels. These physiological changes stimulate the nervous system,
making it harder to initiate sleep and maintain restful sleep. Evening workouts are a well-known
cause of delayed sleep onset, fragmented sleep, and persistent fatigue.
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