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Ace Your Test with ATI RN VATI Comprehensive Predictor Actual Questions and Solutions - Full Set

Free ATI RN VATI Comprehensive Predictor Questions

1.

A nurse is planning care for a client who is experiencing acute mania. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

  • A. Provide a flexible activity schedule.​
  • B. Provide high-calorie nutritional supplements.​
  • C. Allow the client to eat meals alone in her room.​
  • D. Allow the client to choose her clothes independently.

Explanation

Explanation
B. Provide high-calorie nutritional supplements:​
Clients in acute mania often have poor nutritional intake due to hyperactivity, distractibility,
and reduced ability to sit through meals. They burn large amounts of energy and can quickly
become malnourished. High-calorie finger foods and supplements support their caloric needs and
compensate for their inability to eat full meals. Ensuring adequate nutrition is a priority during
acute manic episodes.
2.

A nurse from the State Health Department is instructing a group of nurses regarding reportable infections. Which of the following infections should the nurse report to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention?

  • A. Herpes simplex virus 2​
  • B. Candida albicans​
  • C. Staphylococcus aureus​
  • D. Lyme disease

Explanation

Explanation
D. Lyme disease:​
Lyme disease is a nationally reportable infection that must be reported to the CDC. It is
transmitted by ticks and can cause multisystem complications if untreated. Tracking Lyme
disease cases allows public health officials to monitor regional spread, identify outbreaks, and
implement prevention strategies. Healthcare providers are required to report confirmed or
probable cases.
3.

A nurse is evaluating the allergy profile of a client who has Graves’ disease and is to undergo a thyroid scan. The nurse should identify which of the following allergies as a contraindication for the client to undergo a thyroid scan?

  • A. Eggs​
  • B. Latex​
  • C. Peanuts​
  • D. Iodine

Explanation

Explanation
D. Iodine:​
A thyroid scan commonly uses iodine-based contrast agents. Clients with an iodine allergy are
at significant risk for an allergic reaction when exposed to iodinated contrast used in imaging
studies. Because thyroid scans rely on radioactive iodine uptake, this allergy is a direct
contraindication. Identifying an iodine allergy ensures safe diagnostic testing and prevents
potentially life-threatening hypersensitivity reactions.
4.

A nurse is creating a plan of care for a client who has borderline personality disorder. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?

  • A. Assess the client for triggers of self-mutilating behavior.​
  • B. Encourage the client to use splitting behaviors.​
  • C. Assist the client in developing more dependent relationships.​
  • D. Use sympathy when developing the therapeutic relationship with the client.

Explanation

Explanation
Clients with borderline personality disorder are at high risk for self-harm and self-mutilation,
especially when experiencing emotional distress. Identifying triggers—such as abandonment
fears, interpersonal conflict, or intense emotional states—allows the nurse to implement early
interventions and safety strategies. This action supports risk reduction, helps build coping skills,
and is essential to maintaining client safety, which is the top priority in borderline personality
disorder care.
5.

A nurse is teaching a client who has open-angle glaucoma about eye drop administration. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

  • A. "Instill prescribed drops whenever your eyes feel irritated."​
  • B. "Apply gentle pressure to the outer corner of your eye following eye drop administration."​
  • C. "Place the tip of the container in the lower conjunctival sac to administer."​
  • D. "Wait 5 minutes before administering different eye drop medications."

Explanation

Explanation
D. "Wait 5 minutes before administering different eye drop medications.":​
Waiting at least 5 minutes between different eye medications prevents one drop from diluting
or washing out the other, ensuring proper absorption and therapeutic effect. This is essential in
glaucoma management, where multiple medications may be prescribed to reduce intraocular
pressure.
6.

A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client following a motor-vehicle crash. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

  • A. Administer supplemental oxygen.​
  • B. Initiate IV access.​
  • C. Stabilize the cervical spine.​
  • D. Apply a warming blanket.

Explanation

Explanation
C. Stabilize the cervical spine:​
In trauma care, the first priority is always airway with cervical spine protection. A
motor-vehicle crash places the client at high risk for cervical spine injury. If the neck is not
stabilized immediately, movement can cause spinal cord damage leading to paralysis or

respiratory arrest. Cervical stabilization must occur before airway management, oxygen
delivery, or IV access.
7.

A nurse is caring for a client who reports the use of chondroitin and glucosamine. The health benefit of this supplement combination is to do which of the following?

  • A. Treat mild to moderate depression.​
  • B. Enhance the immune system.​
  • C. Prevent and treat prostate enlargement.​
  • D. Improve joint functioning.

Explanation

Explanation
D. Improve joint functioning:​
Glucosamine and chondroitin are commonly used together to support joint health. They are
believed to help maintain cartilage structure, reduce joint inflammation, and improve mobility,
especially in clients with osteoarthritis. Many individuals take this combination to ease joint pain
and stiffness and promote smoother joint movement.
8.

A nurse in the emergency department is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a sprained ankle. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?

  • A. Maintain foot above the level of the head.​
  • B. Expect numbness and tingling for the first 24 hr.​
  • C. Apply ice on the ankle for 20 min intervals.​
  • D. Perform range of motion exercises for the affected joint.

Explanation

Explanation
C. Apply ice on the ankle for 20 min intervals:​
Ice therapy is part of the RICE protocol (Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation) for acute sprains.
Applying ice for 15–20 minutes at a time, several times daily, reduces swelling, inflammation,
and pain. It must be used intermittently to prevent tissue damage or frostbite. This is the most
correct and evidence-based teaching for the first 24–48 hours after a sprain.
9.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has schizophrenia and is starting therapy with clozapine. Which of the following is the highest priority for the client to report to the provider?

  • A. Blurred vision​
  • B. Dry mouth​
  • C. Fever​
  • D. Constipation

Explanation

Explanation
C. Fever:​
Fever can indicate agranulocytosis, a life-threatening adverse effect of clozapine that causes
severe neutropenia and increases the risk of fatal infections. Because clozapine suppresses bone
marrow function, any sign of infection—especially fever—must be reported immediately. This is
the highest priority due to the risk of rapid clinical deterioration.
10.

A nurse is performing a vision screening for a client. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the client has cataracts?

  • A. Report of a chronic dull ache in the eyes​
  • B. Bilateral redness of the sclerae​
  • C. Increased opacity of the lens of the eye​
  • D. Report of seeing halos around lights

Explanation

Explanation
C. Increased opacity of the lens of the eye:​
Cataracts are characterized by a clouding or opacity of the lens, which interferes with light
transmission and leads to progressive vision loss. This physical change is the hallmark defining
feature of cataracts and can be visualized during an eye examination. Clients often report blurry,
dim, or hazy vision as the opacity worsens. Identifying lens cloudiness confirms the presence of
cataracts.

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