Hesi Mental Health Assessment
Access The Exact Questions for Hesi Mental Health Assessment
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock Actual Exam Questions and Answers for Hesi Mental Health Assessment on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Ace Your Test with Hesi Mental Health Assessment Actual Questions and Solutions - Full Set
Free Hesi Mental Health Assessment Questions
Which of the following statements regarding the risk of death from suicide is most accurate?
-
People with insomnia have an equivalent risk of death by suicide compared with the general population.
-
People with ADHD have a lower risk of death by suicide than the general population.
-
The rate of death by suicide in people with bipolar disorder is the highest for any disorder.
-
The rate of death by suicide in people with bipolar disorder is higher than that of people with major depression.
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (D) The rate of death by suicide in people with bipolar disorder is higher than that of people with major depression.
Research has shown that individuals with bipolar disorder have a higher rate of death by suicide compared to those with major depressive disorder, due to factors such as mood instability, impulsivity during mixed or manic states, and the cyclical nature of the illness.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Insomnia is actually associated with an increased risk of suicide, not an equivalent risk compared to the general population.
B. ADHD is associated with an increased, not decreased, risk of suicide compared to the general population, due to impulsivity and other associated risk factors.
C. While bipolar disorder carries a high suicide risk, it is not universally established as the absolute highest among all psychiatric disorders; this is a broad and somewhat inaccurate generalization compared to the more specific and evidence-supported comparison in option D.
A 56-year-old man presents to the PMHNP, stating he was sent by his wife. He explains he used to own a video rental store, and as a result, he has a large collection of VHS tapes. He continues to collect these "antiques" and does not see any problem with this because they are valuable. He admits he never watches them, because he can never decide which one to watch, and he doesn't have a lot of time. He has started running out of space to keep the tapes, and he admits many of them are probably ruined because they have been housed outside in a hot storage unit. Which diagnosis is most appropriate?
-
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
-
Delusional disorder
-
Normal collecting behavior
-
Hoarding disorder
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (C) Normal collecting behavior
This man derives genuine value from his collection, has a coherent rationale connected to his former occupation, and while he has accumulated many items, there is no clear evidence of significant distress, dysfunction, or the chaotic accumulation of items typically seen in hoarding disorder; this reflects a valued collection rather than pathological hoarding.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. There is no evidence of intrusive obsessions or compulsions driving this behavior.
B. There is no fixed, false belief indicative of a delusion; his valuation of the tapes, while perhaps exaggerated, does not reach delusional proportions.
D. Hoarding disorder involves persistent difficulty discarding possessions leading to cluttered living spaces that compromise their intended use and cause significant distress or impairment; while there are some overlapping features (space issues), the scenario emphasizes a coherent collecting rationale rather than the distress-driven accumulation pattern core to hoarding disorder.
The PMHNP has just diagnosed a 28-year-old woman with generalized anxiety disorder and prescribed the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor escitalopram (Lexapro). Which of the following tools will he administer to measure the client's response to the medication over time?
-
Patient Health Questionnaire-9
-
Brief psychiatric rating scale (BPRS)
-
State-trait anxiety inventory (STAI)
-
Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale (HAM-A)
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (D) Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale (HAM-A)
The Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale is a well-validated, clinician-administered tool specifically designed to measure the severity of anxiety symptoms and monitor treatment response over time in patients with anxiety disorders like GAD.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. The PHQ-9 is specifically designed to measure depression severity, not anxiety.
B. The BPRS is used to assess symptoms of psychosis and general psychiatric symptoms, not specifically anxiety in GAD.
C. While the STAI does measure anxiety, the HAM-A is more classically used in clinical practice specifically for monitoring GAD treatment response over time.
The PMHNP works on an inpatient unit for adult men and women in acute suicidal crisis. Which of the following statements is accurate about gender differences in suicide risk and suicide rates in major depressive disorder (MDD)?
-
The risk of suicide attempts and completions is equal in men and women.
-
The risk of suicide attempts is higher in women, but risk of suicide completions is higher in men.
-
The risk of suicide attempts and completions is higher in women.
-
The risk of suicide attempts and completions is higher in men.
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (B) The risk of suicide attempts is higher in women, but risk of suicide completions is higher in men.
This is a well-established epidemiological pattern: women attempt suicide more frequently, but men have higher completion rates, largely attributed to differences in the lethality of methods typically used by each gender.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Suicide risk is not equal between genders; there are well-documented differences in both attempt and completion rates.
C. While attempts are higher in women, completions are not also higher in women; completions are actually higher in men.
D. While completions are higher in men, attempts are not also higher in men; attempts are actually higher in women.
A 19-year-old man presents to the PMHNP for a psychiatric evaluation with a chief complaint of intrusive thoughts and compulsive behaviors. Of the following, which is considered the gold standard assessment tool for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) severity?
-
Obsessive-Compulsive Inventory (OCI)
-
Florida Obsessive-Compulsive Inventory (FOCI)
-
Yale-Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale (Y-BOCS)
-
National Institute of Mental Health-Global Obsessive-Compulsive Scale
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (C) Yale-Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale (Y-BOCS)
The Yale-Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale is widely recognized as the gold standard, clinician-administered assessment tool for measuring the severity of OCD symptoms, extensively validated and used in both clinical practice and research settings.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. The Obsessive-Compulsive Inventory is a useful self-report screening tool but is not considered the gold standard compared to the Y-BOCS.
B. The Florida Obsessive-Compulsive Inventory is also a valid tool but does not hold the gold standard designation that the Y-BOCS does.
D. The NIMH Global Obsessive-Compulsive Scale is a brief, less detailed tool compared to the comprehensive, gold-standard Y-BOCS.
A 16-year-old girl has a bald spot on her scalp and her mother brings her to the PMHNP on the advice of her primary care provider after all medical causes are ruled out. The girl admits to pulling out her hair in class when she is bored, but says she tends to pull it out more often in math class where she is making Cs. This is the first year she is not doing well in math, and her mother says it is "stressing her out." What is the most appropriate diagnosis?
-
Generalized anxiety disorder
-
Trichotillomania
-
Body dysmorphic disorder
-
Delusional disorder, somatic type
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (B) Trichotillomania
Trichotillomania is characterized by recurrent hair-pulling resulting in hair loss, often triggered or worsened by stress or boredom, as described in this patient who pulls her hair when bored and more frequently during stressful academic situations, without an underlying delusional or body image-driven motivation.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. While stress from math class is mentioned as a contributing factor, the primary presenting problem is the hair-pulling behavior itself, which is specifically characteristic of trichotillomania rather than a broader anxiety disorder.
C. Body dysmorphic disorder involves hair-pulling driven by a perceived appearance flaw needing correction; here, the behavior is linked to boredom and stress, not a specific appearance-related preoccupation.
D. There is no evidence of a fixed, false belief about having a physical defect or illness, ruling out delusional disorder.
A 28-year-old woman presents to the psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner for evaluation of depression and anxiety. She states that her older sister and her mother have been on antidepressants "for years." She has avoided coming to the "crazy doctor" for "a long time." She is nervous about taking medication because she is worried about side effects. She asks about getting a genetic test to see which medication would work best for her. What is the PMHNP's most appropriate response?
-
"You don't need a genetic test until you have failed a few medications."
-
"We can certainly conduct a genetic screening test if you would like."
-
"Which medications are your mother and sister taking?"
-
"We can certainly obtain a genetic test; while we wait for results, let's start with a medication that is working for your mother or sister."
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (D) "We can certainly obtain a genetic test; while we wait for results, let's start with a medication that is working for your mother or sister."
This response validates the patient's interest in genetic testing while also using a practical, evidence-informed strategy: family history of medication response can be a helpful guide for initial medication selection, and starting treatment promptly rather than delaying care while awaiting test results best serves the patient's immediate needs.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. This response dismisses the patient's request without adequately addressing her concerns or offering the testing she is interested in.
B. This response addresses the genetic testing request but misses the opportunity to also use the relevant family history information to guide immediate treatment.
C. While this question gathers useful information, it does not address her original request about genetic testing, leaving her question unanswered.
A 23-year-old graduate student is appointed to be the team leader for a group project. He is so rigid and inflexible about the rubric that other members of the team get frustrated, and the project almost collapses. He insists that each section must be completed and perfected before the next section can be started. The project is eventually finished, but no one on the team will work with him again. Which disorder best reflects this man's behaviors?
-
Avoidant personality disorder
-
Narcissistic personality disorder
-
Borderline personality disorder
-
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD)
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (D) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD)
OCPD is characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control, often leading to significant interpersonal difficulties, as this rigid perfectionism interferes with task completion and collaboration, exactly as depicted in this scenario.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Avoidant personality disorder involves social inhibition and feelings of inadequacy, not rigid perfectionism and control over tasks.
B. Narcissistic personality disorder involves grandiosity and need for admiration, which is not the central feature described in this scenario.
C. Borderline personality disorder involves instability in relationships, self-image, and emotions, not rigid perfectionism about task completion.
The PMHNP works on an inpatient geriatric psychiatric unit. She knows that which of the following features is commonly present in Lewy body dementia?
-
A steadily progressive, gradual decline in reasoning and increased incidence of sleep walking
-
Motor abnormalities with a low incidence of depression and psychosis
-
Recurrent visual hallucinations; affected patients adversely react to antipsychotics
-
A slowly progressive and fatal disorder that manifests with depression, psychosis, personality changes, and dementia
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (C) Recurrent visual hallucinations; affected patients adversely react to antipsychotics
Lewy body dementia is classically characterized by recurrent, detailed visual hallucinations, along with a hallmark severe sensitivity to antipsychotic medications, which can cause significant adverse reactions including worsened parkinsonism, making this a critical and distinguishing clinical feature.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. While cognitive decline occurs, the classic features of Lewy body dementia include fluctuating cognition, visual hallucinations, and parkinsonism, not primarily a "steadily progressive, gradual" pattern with sleepwalking as the defining feature (though REM sleep behavior disorder is associated).
B. Lewy body dementia actually has a high, not low, incidence of both depression and psychosis (particularly hallucinations).
D. This description is more general and does not specifically capture the hallmark features (visual hallucinations, antipsychotic sensitivity) unique to Lewy body dementia.
The PMHNP primarily works with older adult patients who frequently present with cognitive issues. He knows many people with Lewy body dementia are misdiagnosed or do not receive diagnosis for 18 months or more. Which of the following assessment tools does the PMHNP use to discriminate between Lewy body dementia (LBD), Parkinson's disease dementia (PDD), and mild cognitive impairment (MCI) due to Lewy body disease from other forms of cognitive impairment?
-
Eight-item Informant Interview to Differentiate Aging and Dementia (AD8)
-
Mini-Cog
-
Lewy Body Composite Risk Score
-
Informant Questionnaire on Cognitive Decline in the Elderly
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (C) Lewy Body Composite Risk Score
The Lewy Body Composite Risk Score is a specific, validated screening tool designed to help differentiate Lewy body dementia, Parkinson's disease dementia, and MCI due to Lewy body disease from other forms of cognitive impairment, addressing the specific diagnostic challenge described in this scenario.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. The AD8 is a general screening tool for detecting cognitive impairment/dementia broadly but is not specifically designed to discriminate Lewy body-related conditions from other dementia types.
B. The Mini-Cog is a brief, general cognitive screening tool, not specifically designed to discriminate between Lewy body dementia and other forms of cognitive impairment.
D. The Informant Questionnaire on Cognitive Decline in the Elderly is a general screening tool for cognitive decline, not specifically validated for differentiating Lewy body-related dementias from other types.
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .