ATI NUR 4355 Fall 2025 Final Exam
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Free ATI NUR 4355 Fall 2025 Final Exam Questions
A nurse is planning an in-service about immunizations. Which of the following information should the nurse include about the Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) vaccine? (Select all that apply.)
- A. The final booster dose is administered at 12 to 15 months of age.
- B. The vaccine is administered intramuscularly.
- C. The first dose of this vaccine can be administered to a newborn immediately after birth.
- D. The vaccine reduces the risks for meningitis and epiglottitis.
- E. An allergy to eggs is a contraindication to this vaccine.
Explanation
Explanation
A. The final booster dose is administered at 12 to 15 months of age.
The Hib vaccine series includes multiple doses in infancy, with the final booster given between 12 and 15 months. This booster enhances long-term immunity and ensures adequate protection against Hib-related infections, which are most severe in young children.
B. The vaccine is administered intramuscularly.
Hib vaccine is given via intramuscular injection, typically in the anterolateral thigh for infants or the deltoid for older children. This route ensures proper absorption and an effective immune response.
D. The vaccine reduces the risks for meningitis and epiglottitis.
The primary purpose of the Hib vaccine is to protect against invasive infections caused by Haemophilus influenzae type b, including meningitis, epiglottitis, and bacteremia. Vaccination has significantly decreased the incidence of these potentially life-threatening conditions in children.
Correct Answer Is:
A. The final booster dose is administered at 12 to 15 months of age.B. The vaccine is administered intramuscularly.
D. The vaccine reduces the risks for meningitis and epiglottitis.
A nurse is teaching a newly hired nurse about the risks of cellulitis following an injury. Which of the following statements by the newly hired nurse shows the teaching was effective?
- A. “Skin abrasions cause red blood cells to respond to the area of infiltration and cause inflammation.”
- B. “Skin abrasions facilitate the entry and travel of bacteria to deeper tissue layers.”
- C. “Skin abrasions only cause cellulitis when it is deep enough to impact the dermal layer of skin.”
- D. “Skin abrasions lead to inflammation because of the proliferation of neutrophils.”
Explanation
Explanation
Cellulitis is a bacterial infection of the skin and subcutaneous tissue, often following breaks in the skin such as abrasions, cuts, or wounds. These disruptions allow bacteria, commonly Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus species, to enter and proliferate in deeper tissues. While inflammation occurs, it is a response to infection rather than solely neutrophil proliferation. Red blood cells do not initiate cellulitis, and even superficial abrasions can lead to infection, not just dermal-level injuries.
Correct Answer Is:
B. “Skin abrasions facilitate the entry and travel of bacteria to deeper tissue layers.”Why the other options are incorrect:
While inflammation occurs, it is a response to infection rather than solely neutrophil proliferation. Red blood cells do not initiate cellulitis, and even superficial abrasions can lead to infection, not just dermal-level injuries.A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to parents who are introducing their child to more solid foods. Which of the following foods should the nurse educate the parents about that increases the risk of foreign body aspiration? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Popcorn
- B. Bread
- C. Grapes
- D. Hot dogs
- E. Cheese
Explanation
Explanation
A. Popcorn
Popcorn is a common choking hazard because the small, hard kernels can easily become lodged in a young child’s airway. Children under 4 years of age should avoid popcorn due to the high risk of aspiration.
C. Grapes
Whole grapes are round and slippery, making them a significant choking hazard for toddlers and preschool-aged children. Grapes should be cut into small, manageable pieces to reduce risk.
D. Hot dogs
Hot dogs are dense, cylindrical, and can block the airway if not cut into small, lengthwise or bite-sized pieces. They are one of the most frequent foods associated with choking incidents in young children.
Correct Answer Is:
A. PopcornC. Grapes
D. Hot dogs
A nurse is providing education to the family of a school-aged child who has a history of atrial septal defect (ASD) with surgical repair. The child's caregivers ask the nurse if their child can play sports. Which of the following statements made by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. “Your child can participate in activities like riding a bike, but they should not participate in sports.”
- B. “Your child can participate in team sports as tolerated.”
- C. “Your child cannot participate in any sports.”
- D. “Your child can participate in only individual sports, no team sports.”
Explanation
Explanation
After successful surgical repair of an ASD, many children can safely participate in age-appropriate physical activities, including team sports, as long as they are asymptomatic and cleared by their cardiologist. Participation should be gradual and monitored for fatigue, palpitations, or shortness of breath. Restricting all sports or only allowing individual activities is unnecessary if the child’s cardiac function is stable.
Correct Answer Is:
B. “Your child can participate in team sports as tolerated.”Why the other options are incorrect:
Restricting all sports or only allowing individual activities is unnecessary if the child’s cardiac function is stable.A nurse is instructing a newly licensed nurse on how to conduct head and neck assessments in pediatric patients. Which statement by the newly licensed nurse indicates a correct understanding of the assessment process?
- A. “An infant’s lymph nodes may be large and tender at 2 months of age.”
- B. “Infants should be able to hold their head steady without support by 3 months of age.”
- C. “Facial drooping during assessment is a normal finding and does not require further action.”
- D. “Inspection and palpation should be used to evaluate the skull, eyes, ears, nose, mouth, throat, and neck structures.”
Explanation
Explanation
Head and neck assessments in pediatric clients primarily involve inspection and palpation to evaluate anatomy, symmetry, and developmental appropriateness. These techniques allow the nurse to assess skull shape, fontanels, facial features, lymph nodes, and neck mobility safely and effectively. Tender lymph nodes, facial drooping, or abnormal motor milestones are not normal findings and would require further evaluation, making option D the correct statement.
Correct Answer Is:
D. “Inspection and palpation should be used to evaluate the skull, eyes, ears, nose, mouth, throat, and neck structures.”Why the other options are incorrect:
Tender lymph nodes, facial drooping, or abnormal motor milestones are not normal findings and would require further evaluation, making option D the correct statement.A nurse in the emergency department is assessing an adolescent who reports sudden and severe testicular pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Obtain a urology consult for immediate evaluation.
- B. Apply heat to the affected area for relief.
- C. Recommend the client take over-the-counter pain relievers and monitor pain over the next few days.
- D. Determine if the adolescent has had exposure to the mumps recently.
Explanation
Explanation
Sudden and severe testicular pain in an adolescent is a medical emergency, as it may indicate testicular torsion, which requires immediate surgical intervention to preserve testicular viability. Applying heat or using over-the-counter medications can worsen ischemia. While history of mumps can be relevant to orchitis, the priority is rapid assessment and urology evaluation to prevent permanent testicular damage.
Correct Answer Is:
A. Obtain a urology consult for immediate evaluation.Why the other options are incorrect:
Applying heat or using over-the-counter medications can worsen ischemia. While history of mumps can be relevant to orchitis, the priority is rapid assessment and urology evaluation to prevent permanent testicular damage.A nurse is assessing an 18-month-old toddler at a wellness visit in the health care provider's office. During the assessment, the nurse asks the parent about developmental milestones. The parent states that the toddler has not said their first word yet. Which of the following priority actions by the nurse is accurate?
- A. Complete a screening test for autism spectrum disorder (ASD).
- B. Ask the parent if the toddler has a history of hospitalizations or surgeries.
- C. Ask the parent about recent immunizations.
- D. Educate the parent that toddlers do not typically say their first word until 18–20 months of age.
Explanation
Explanation
By 12–15 months, most toddlers should have spoken at least one word. Delayed speech at 18 months is a potential red flag for developmental disorders, including autism spectrum disorder. Early screening allows timely identification and intervention to support communication and social development. While educating parents about typical milestones is important, the priority is to evaluate for potential developmental delays. Questions about hospitalizations or immunizations are secondary and do not directly address delayed speech.
Correct Answer Is:
A. Complete a screening test for autism spectrum disorder (ASD).Why the other options are incorrect:
While educating parents about typical milestones is important, the priority is to evaluate for potential developmental delays. Questions about hospitalizations or immunizations are secondary and do not directly address delayed speech.A nurse is providing teaching to a group about autism spectrum disorder (ASD). Which of the following statements regarding conditions commonly accompanying ASD should the nurse include?
- A. “Most individuals with ASD are also diagnosed with Down syndrome, another developmental disorder.”
- B. “Hypertension is a common co-morbid condition with ASD due to the stress associated with the disorder.”
- C. “Often those with ASD also have sensory processing issues, which can affect their responses to certain textures, sounds, or lights.”
- D. “Type 1 diabetes is a condition that is frequently found in conjunction with ASD.”
Explanation
Explanation
Sensory processing difficulties are commonly associated with autism spectrum disorder. Individuals with ASD may be hypersensitive or hyposensitive to sensory input such as sound, touch, light, textures, or movement. These sensory differences can affect behavior, communication, learning, and daily functioning. Recognizing sensory processing issues is important for providing appropriate support, accommodations, and interventions that improve comfort and participation in daily activities.
Correct Answer Is:
C. “Often those with ASD also have sensory processing issues, which can affect their responses to certain textures, sounds, or lights.”Why the other options are incorrect:
Recognizing sensory processing issues is important for providing appropriate support, accommodations, and interventions that improve comfort and participation in daily activities.A nurse is caring for a 12-year-old client diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The nurse should recognize which of the following as a common manifestation of SLE?
- A. Presence of proteinuria and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels
- B. Increased energy
- C. Weight gain
- D. Mania
Explanation
Explanation
Renal involvement is a common and serious manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus, especially in pediatric clients. Lupus nephritis occurs when immune complexes damage the glomeruli, leading to proteinuria, hematuria, and impaired kidney function. Elevated BUN levels indicate decreased renal filtration and worsening kidney involvement. Early recognition is critical because untreated renal disease can progress to chronic kidney failure and significantly affect long-term outcomes.
Correct Answer Is:
A. Presence of proteinuria and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levelsWhy the other options are incorrect:
Early recognition is critical because untreated renal disease can progress to chronic kidney failure and significantly affect long-term outcomes.A nurse is providing teaching to a parent who reports feeling overwhelmed and frustrated because their newborn has persistent, inconsolable crying despite all of the usual soothing measures. Which complication should the nurse stress the importance of preventing through immediate and thorough parental education?
- A. Infections caused by inadequate diaper changes
- B. Colic as a common cause of crying in newborns
- C. Failure to thrive related to poor feeding techniques
- D. Shaken baby syndrome due to parental frustration and excessive crying
Explanation
Explanation
Persistent, inconsolable crying can increase parental stress and the risk of abusive behaviors, including shaken baby syndrome, which can cause severe brain injury or death. Education should focus on coping strategies, safe handling, and stress relief techniques. While colic, infections, and feeding issues are relevant, the most critical complication to prevent is non-accidental trauma resulting from frustration and unsafe responses to crying.
Correct Answer Is:
D. Shaken baby syndrome due to parental frustration and excessive cryingWhy the other options are incorrect:
While colic, infections, and feeding issues are relevant, the most critical complication to prevent is non-accidental trauma resulting from frustration and unsafe responses to crying.How to Order
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