ATI NUR 4355 Fall 2025 Final Exam

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Free ATI NUR 4355 Fall 2025 Final Exam Questions

1.

A nurse is caring for a 12-year-old client in the acute phase of HIV. Which complication should the nurse monitor for at this time?

  • Fever
  • Pneumonia
  • Kaposi’s sarcoma
  • AIDS

Explanation

Explanation

The acute phase of HIV, also called primary HIV infection, typically occurs 2–4 weeks after exposure and presents with nonspecific viral symptoms, such as fever, malaise, lymphadenopathy, sore throat, and rash. Opportunistic infections like pneumonia, Kaposi’s sarcoma, and progression to AIDS occur later, during the chronic or advanced stages of HIV, after significant immune suppression has developed. Therefore, fever is the primary complication to monitor in the acute phase.

Correct Answer Is:
A. Fever

Why the other options are incorrect:
Opportunistic infections like pneumonia, Kaposi’s sarcoma, and progression to AIDS occur later, during the chronic or advanced stages of HIV, after significant immune suppression has developed. Therefore, fever is the primary complication to monitor in the acute phase.
2.

A nurse is caring for a child who has a diagnosis of complete blindness. Which of the following descriptions should the nurse associate with this diagnosis?

  • Blurred vision in one eye and clear vision in the other.
  • The inability to see objects or any light source.
  • A bilateral visual acuity of 20/20.
  • A bilateral visual acuity of 20/200 with contact lenses.

Explanation

Explanation

Complete blindness is defined as the total lack of visual perception, including the inability to detect light. Blurred vision in one eye or reduced visual acuity indicates partial vision impairment, not total blindness. A bilateral visual acuity of 20/20 represents normal vision, and 20/200 indicates severe visual impairment but not complete blindness. Accurate identification ensures appropriate interventions and support for the child’s functional needs.

Correct Answer Is:
B. The inability to see objects or any light source.

Why the other options are incorrect:
Blurred vision in one eye or reduced visual acuity indicates partial vision impairment, not total blindness. A bilateral visual acuity of 20/20 represents normal vision, and 20/200 indicates severe visual impairment but not complete blindness. Accurate identification ensures appropriate interventions and support for the child’s functional needs.
3.

A nurse is assessing an 18-month-old toddler at a wellness visit in the health care provider's office. During the assessment, the nurse asks the parent about developmental milestones. The parent states that the toddler has not said their first word yet. Which of the following priority actions by the nurse is accurate?

  • Complete a screening test for autism spectrum disorder (ASD).
  • Ask the parent if the toddler has a history of hospitalizations or surgeries.
  • Ask the parent about recent immunizations.
  • Educate the parent that toddlers do not typically say their first word until 18–20 months of age.

Explanation

Explanation

By 12–15 months, most toddlers should have spoken at least one word. Delayed speech at 18 months is a potential red flag for developmental disorders, including autism spectrum disorder. Early screening allows timely identification and intervention to support communication and social development. While educating parents about typical milestones is important, the priority is to evaluate for potential developmental delays. Questions about hospitalizations or immunizations are secondary and do not directly address delayed speech.

Correct Answer Is:
A. Complete a screening test for autism spectrum disorder (ASD).

Why the other options are incorrect:
While educating parents about typical milestones is important, the priority is to evaluate for potential developmental delays. Questions about hospitalizations or immunizations are secondary and do not directly address delayed speech.
4.

A 6-year-old child has a superficial partial-thickness burn on the arm. Which nursing goal is most appropriate when planning treatment for this minor burn?

  • Apply cool water to the burn for up to 15 minutes, clean gently with mild soap daily, and manage pain with over-the-counter medications.
  • Immediately administer IV fluids to prevent hypovolemia and monitor urine output.
  • Encourage sun exposure to the burn area to promote vitamin D synthesis and healing.
  • Prevent infection by keeping the burn clean and covered with a dry sterile dressing.

Explanation

Explanation

Superficial partial-thickness burns are considered minor burns and are typically managed with first-aid measures. Cooling the burn with cool (not ice-cold) water helps limit tissue damage and reduce pain. Gentle daily cleansing prevents infection, and over-the-counter analgesics are usually sufficient for pain control. IV fluids are unnecessary for minor burns, sun exposure delays healing, and dry dressings are not preferred for this burn depth.

Correct Answer Is:
A. Apply cool water to the burn for up to 15 minutes, clean gently with mild soap daily, and manage pain with over-the-counter medications.

Why the other options are incorrect:
IV fluids are unnecessary for minor burns, sun exposure delays healing, and dry dressings are not preferred for this burn depth.
5.

A nurse is providing education to a 10-year-old child newly diagnosed with hemophilia and their parents. The parents state that they are withdrawing their child from participating in any sports or physical activities because they are worried the child will get injured. Which of the following statements made by the nurse is most appropriate?

  • “You should allow your child to play any sport they want to play.”
  • “You should allow your child to participate in age-appropriate activities, such as riding a bike using proper protective gear.”
  • “You should not allow your child to ride a bike or go skateboarding with their classmates.”
  • “You should not allow your child to play any sport due to the risk of injury.”

Explanation

Explanation

Children with hemophilia benefit from regular physical activity to promote muscle strength, coordination, and overall health. Completely restricting activity can negatively affect physical and emotional well-being. The nurse should encourage safe, age-appropriate activities that have a low risk of trauma and emphasize the use of protective equipment. High-impact or contact sports should be avoided, but complete activity restriction is unnecessary and inappropriate.

Correct Answer Is:
B. “You should allow your child to participate in age-appropriate activities, such as riding a bike using proper protective gear.”

Why the other options are incorrect:
High-impact or contact sports should be avoided, but complete activity restriction is unnecessary and inappropriate.
6.

The nurse is administering desmopressin (DDAVP) to a pediatric client with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should monitor for which of the following potential side effects of this medication?

  • Hypoglycemia
  • Hypertension
  • Hyponatremia
  • Hyperkalemia

Explanation

Explanation

Desmopressin (DDAVP) is a synthetic analog of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) used to reduce urine output in diabetes insipidus. Because it promotes water retention, excessive use or fluid intake can lead to dilutional hyponatremia, which may result in headache, nausea, or seizures. Hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, and hypertension are not common adverse effects directly associated with desmopressin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels and fluid balance is essential for safe administration.

Correct Answer Is:
C. Hyponatremia

Why the other options are incorrect:
Hypoglycemia, hyperkalemia, and hypertension are not common adverse effects directly associated with desmopressin therapy. Monitoring sodium levels and fluid balance is essential for safe administration.
7.

The nurse is assessing a pediatric patient with a spinal cord injury. Which cue should the nurse recognize as a potential indication of spinal cord injury in this patient?

  • Increased muscle tone
  • Heightened reflex activity
  • Loss of function and reflexes below the affected area of the spine
  • Normal bowel function

Explanation

Explanation

Spinal cord injuries result in motor, sensory, and autonomic dysfunction below the level of the injury. Loss of function and absent reflexes (flaccid paralysis) are common in the acute phase. Increased muscle tone and heightened reflexes may occur later during the recovery phase (spasticity). Normal bowel function would not be expected if the injury affects autonomic control of the gastrointestinal tract. Recognizing loss of function promptly is essential for assessment and intervention.

Correct Answer Is:
C. Loss of function and reflexes below the affected area of the spine

Why the other options are incorrect:
Increased muscle tone and heightened reflexes may occur later during the recovery phase (spasticity). Normal bowel function would not be expected if the injury affects autonomic control of the gastrointestinal tract. Recognizing loss of function promptly is essential for assessment and intervention.
8.

A nurse is caring for a toddler who has von Willebrand disease. The toddler’s parents are concerned about the bleeding risk with vaccinations. Which of the following is accurate information the nurse should share with the parents?

  • Toddlers with bleeding disorders should only receive one vaccine at a time due to the risk of bleeding at injection site.
  • Toddlers with von Willebrand disease should only receive vaccines available as nasal sprays to avoid bleeding from intramuscular injections.
  • Toddlers with bleeding disorders are encouraged to stay up-to-date on vaccinations. The benefit of vaccinations outweighs the risk of bleeding.
  • Toddlers with bleeding disorders should not receive any vaccinations, because the risk of bleeding outweighs the benefit of the vaccinations.

Explanation

Explanation

Children with von Willebrand disease should receive routine vaccinations because the benefits of protection against infectious diseases outweigh the minimal risk of bleeding from injections. Vaccines can be administered safely using proper techniques, such as applying pressure and using smaller-gauge needles. Nasal spray vaccines are an option for some vaccines but are not required for all. Delaying or withholding vaccines is not recommended, even in children with bleeding disorders.

Correct Answer Is:
C. Toddlers with bleeding disorders are encouraged to stay up-to-date on vaccinations. The benefit of vaccinations outweighs the risk of bleeding.

Why the other options are incorrect:
Nasal spray vaccines are an option for some vaccines but are not required for all. Delaying or withholding vaccines is not recommended, even in children with bleeding disorders.
9.

A nurse is screening an infant who is at risk for botulism infection. Which of the following cues should the nurse identify as a possible indication of botulism?

  • Loose stool
  • Difficulty breastfeeding
  • Crying for long periods of time
  • Spasms involving the whole body

Explanation

Explanation

Infant botulism causes neuromuscular blockade leading to hypotonia, weakness, and poor feeding. Difficulty breastfeeding or sucking is often an early and significant sign because the weakened muscles impair the infant’s ability to feed effectively. Loose stools, excessive crying, and whole-body spasms are not characteristic of botulism, which typically presents with flaccid paralysis rather than increased muscle activity.

Correct Answer Is:
B. Difficulty breastfeeding

Why the other options are incorrect:
Loose stools, excessive crying, and whole-body spasms are not characteristic of botulism, which typically presents with flaccid paralysis rather than increased muscle activity.
10.

A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about assessing children's blood pressure. Which of the following statements made by the newly licensed nurse demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?

  • “Routine blood pressure measurements should begin around 1 year of age.”
  • “Cuffs are recommended to be 6 to 15 cm or 2 to 6 inches for school-aged children.”
  • “Blood pressure measurement is taken over the brachial artery using a manual blood pressure cuff.”
  • “The cuff should fit loosely around the child's arm.”

Explanation

Explanation

In children, blood pressure is most accurately measured over the brachial artery using a properly sized manual blood pressure cuff. The brachial artery provides a reliable site for auscultation of Korotkoff sounds, which are necessary for accurate systolic and diastolic readings. Manual measurement is preferred in pediatric clients because automated devices may be less accurate, especially in younger children or those with small arms.

Correct Answer Is:
C. “Blood pressure measurement is taken over the brachial artery using a manual blood pressure cuff.”

Why the other options are incorrect:
Manual measurement is preferred in pediatric clients because automated devices may be less accurate, especially in younger children or those with small arms.

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