BIOL 204-602 SP Anatomy & Phys II Final Exam Howard Community College
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Free BIOL 204-602 SP Anatomy & Phys II Final Exam Howard Community College Questions
Bile salts break up the fat globule into smaller fat droplets. This role of bile salts is best described as ______.
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Lipid digestion
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Lipid ingestion
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Lipid absorption
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Lipid emulsification
Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Lipid emulsification
Bile salts physically break large fat globules into smaller droplets through a process called emulsification. This mechanical dispersion increases the surface area of fats, making them more accessible to lipase enzymes for chemical digestion, but does not chemically alter the fat molecules themselves.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Lipid digestion — Lipid digestion refers to the chemical breakdown of fats by lipase enzymes into fatty acids and monoglycerides; bile salts prepare fats for digestion but do not chemically digest them.
B. Lipid ingestion — Ingestion refers to the intake of food through the mouth and has no relevance to the action of bile salts in the small intestine.
C. Lipid absorption — Lipid absorption occurs after digestion when fatty acids and monoglycerides are taken up by intestinal cells; emulsification is a preparatory step that precedes absorption.
The velocity of blood flow is ______.
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Slowest in the capillaries because the total cross-sectional area is the greatest
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In direct proportion to the total cross-sectional area of the blood vessels
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Slower in the veins than in the capillaries because veins have a large diameter
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Slower in the arteries than in capillaries because arteries possess a relatively large diameter
Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Slowest in the capillaries because the total cross-sectional area is the greatest
Blood flow velocity is inversely proportional to the total cross-sectional area. Capillaries have the greatest combined cross-sectional area of any vessel type, so blood moves most slowly there, allowing time for gas and nutrient exchange.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
B. In direct proportion to the total cross-sectional area — Velocity is inversely, not directly, proportional to cross-sectional area.
C. Slower in the veins than in the capillaries — Veins have a large cross-sectional area but blood moves faster in veins than in capillaries.
D. Slower in the arteries than in capillaries — Arteries have a smaller total cross-sectional area than capillaries, so blood actually moves faster in arteries.
Which of the following is NOT found in saliva?
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Electrolytes
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Urea and uric acid
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Protein enzymes
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Lysozyme
Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Urea and uric acid
Urea and uric acid are nitrogenous waste products normally found in blood and urine, not in saliva. Saliva is primarily composed of water, electrolytes, mucus, enzymes, and antimicrobial substances, but does not contain significant amounts of metabolic waste products like urea and uric acid.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Electrolytes — Saliva contains electrolytes such as sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate, making this a true component of saliva.
C. Protein enzymes — Saliva contains protein enzymes including salivary amylase and lingual lipase, making this a true component.
D. Lysozyme — Lysozyme is an antimicrobial enzyme present in saliva that breaks down bacterial cell walls, protecting the mouth from infection.
Which of the following does NOT influence hemoglobin saturation?
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Partial pressure of carbon dioxide
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Nitric oxide
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Temperature
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BPG
Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Nitric oxide
Nitric oxide is not a primary factor that influences hemoglobin oxygen saturation. The main factors that affect hemoglobin saturation include partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide, temperature, pH, and levels of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (BPG). While hemoglobin can bind nitric oxide, it does not significantly influence oxygen saturation in the way the other listed factors do.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide — Increased CO₂ promotes the Bohr effect, reducing hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen and decreasing saturation.
C. Temperature — Increased temperature decreases hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen, shifting the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right and reducing saturation.
D. BPG — 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) binds to hemoglobin and reduces its affinity for oxygen, promoting oxygen unloading in tissues.
Which of the following is NOT true of saliva?
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Contains enzymes that begin the breakdown of carbohydrates
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Cleanses the mouth
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Contains acids which aid in chemical digestion
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Moistens food and aids in compacting of the bolus
Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Contains acids which aid in chemical digestion
Saliva is slightly alkaline to neutral in pH, not acidic. It does not contain acids; in fact, the bicarbonate buffers in saliva help neutralize acids in the mouth to protect teeth. Chemical digestion in saliva is initiated by enzymes such as salivary amylase, not acids.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Contains enzymes that begin the breakdown of carbohydrates — Salivary amylase (ptyalin) begins starch digestion in the mouth, making this statement true.
B. Cleanses the mouth — Saliva washes away food particles and bacteria, helping to cleanse the oral cavity, which is true.
D. Moistens food and aids in compacting of the bolus — Saliva lubricates food particles, making it easier to form a cohesive bolus for swallowing, which is true.
If a patient with type B blood received a transfusion of AB blood, which of the following would occur?
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The patient's B antigens will agglutinate with the anti-B antibodies in the donor blood.
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The patient's anti-A antibodies will agglutinate with the A antigens in the donor blood.
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The patient's anti-B antibodies will agglutinate with the B antigens in the donor blood.
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The patient's A antigens will agglutinate with the anti-A antibodies in the donor blood.
Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) The patient's anti-A antibodies will agglutinate with the A antigens in the donor blood.
A patient with type B blood has B antigens on their red blood cells and anti-A antibodies in their plasma. AB donor blood contains both A and B antigens on the red blood cells. When AB blood is transfused into a type B recipient, the patient's pre-existing anti-A antibodies in the plasma will recognize and attack the A antigens on the donor AB red blood cells, causing agglutination and a transfusion reaction. This is why type B patients cannot receive AB blood.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. The patient's B antigens would not agglutinate with anti-B antibodies in the donor blood because AB blood does not contain anti-B antibodies. AB positive individuals have no anti-A or anti-B antibodies in their plasma.
C. The patient's anti-B antibodies would not react with B antigens because the patient with type B blood does not have anti-B antibodies. The immune system does not produce antibodies against its own antigens, so a type B patient only has anti-A antibodies.
D. The patient with type B blood does not have A antigens on their red blood cells, so there are no A antigens present on the patient's cells to react with anti-A antibodies.
A woman who wants to ensure conception might buy an "ovulation predictor" kit. Which of the following hormones, when detected by the kit, would be the best indicator of imminent ovulation?
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Estrogens
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FSH, follicle stimulating hormone
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LH, luteinizing hormone
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GnRH, gonadotropin hormone releasing hormone
Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) LH, luteinizing hormone
Ovulation predictor kits detect the LH surge in urine. A sharp rise in LH from the anterior pituitary triggers ovulation approximately 24–36 hours later, making it the most reliable hormonal indicator of imminent ovulation.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Estrogens — While estrogen rises during the follicular phase and triggers the LH surge, estrogen levels alone do not precisely pinpoint imminent ovulation as accurately as detecting the LH surge itself.
B. FSH, follicle stimulating hormone — FSH rises to stimulate follicle development earlier in the cycle but does not provide as precise a signal for imminent ovulation as the LH surge.
D. GnRH, gonadotropin hormone releasing hormone — GnRH is released from the hypothalamus in pulses and is not detectable in urine; it is not a practical marker for ovulation prediction.
Peristaltic waves are ______.
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Segmental regions of the gastrointestinal tract
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Pendular movements of the gastrointestinal tract
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Waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another
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Churning movements of the gastrointestinal tract that aid in mechanical breakdown of chyme
Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Waves of muscular contractions that propel contents from one point to another
Peristalsis consists of coordinated, sequential waves of smooth muscle contraction and relaxation that move food and digestive contents progressively along the gastrointestinal tract from the esophagus to the rectum.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Segmental regions of the gastrointestinal tract — This describes segmentation, a mixing movement that divides the intestine into segments to mix chyme, not propel it.
B. Pendular movements of the gastrointestinal tract — Pendular movements are a type of mixing motion, not the propulsive waves characteristic of peristalsis.
D. Churning movements of the gastrointestinal tract that aid in mechanical breakdown of chyme — Churning describes segmentation and mixing movements in the stomach, not peristaltic propulsion.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?
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Transporting dietary fats
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Draining excess interstitial fluid
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Transporting respiratory gases
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Carrying out immune responses
Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) Transporting respiratory gases
Transporting respiratory gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide is a function of the cardiovascular system, specifically the blood and red blood cells. The lymphatic system has no role in gas transport.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Transporting dietary fats — Lacteals in the small intestine absorb dietary fats and transport them via lymph to the bloodstream, a key lymphatic function.
B. Draining excess interstitial fluid — The lymphatic system collects excess fluid from tissues and returns it to the bloodstream, preventing edema.
D. Carrying out immune responses — Lymphatic organs such as lymph nodes, the spleen, and the thymus are central to mounting and coordinating immune responses.
Which of the following is NOT a role of activated complement?
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Enhancement of inflammation
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Prevention of immediate hypersensitivity reactions
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Opsonization
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Insertion of MAC and cell lysis
Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Prevention of immediate hypersensitivity reactions
Activated complement does not prevent hypersensitivity reactions. In fact, complement activation can contribute to inflammatory and hypersensitivity responses rather than suppressing them. Prevention of hypersensitivity is not among complement's recognized functions.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Enhancement of inflammation — Complement fragments such as C3a and C5a act as anaphylatoxins that promote inflammation, a well-established role of complement.
C. Opsonization — C3b coats pathogens to enhance phagocytosis, which is a classic function of the complement system.
D. Insertion of MAC and cell lysis — The membrane attack complex (MAC) is the terminal product of complement activation and directly lyses target cells.
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