BIOL 204-602 SP Anatomy & Phys II Final Exam Howard Community College

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Ace Your Test with BIOL 204-602 SP Anatomy & Phys II Final Exam Howard Community College Actual Questions and Solutions - Full Set

Free BIOL 204-602 SP Anatomy & Phys II Final Exam Howard Community College Questions

1.

Which of the choices below is NOT a part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis?

  • Anterior pituitary gland

  • Hypothalamus

  • Interstitial endocrine cells

  • Thalamus

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Thalamus
The thalamus is a relay center in the brain that processes sensory information but is not a component of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis. The HPG axis consists of the hypothalamus, anterior pituitary, and the gonads, which communicate through GnRH, FSH, LH, and sex hormones.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Anterior pituitary gland — The anterior pituitary is a core component of the HPG axis, releasing FSH and LH in response to GnRH stimulation.
B. Hypothalamus — The hypothalamus initiates the HPG axis by secreting GnRH, making it a fundamental part of the axis.
C. Interstitial endocrine cells — Interstitial endocrine cells (Leydig cells in males) are the gonadal component of the HPG axis, producing testosterone in response to LH stimulation.
2.

Select the correct statement about the heart valves.

  • The tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle.

  • Aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves control the flow of blood into the heart.

  • The atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent backflow of blood added into the atria during ventricular contraction.

  • The mitral (bicuspid) valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle.

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) The atrioventricular (AV) valves prevent backflow of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction.
The AV valves, which include the mitral valve on the left and the tricuspid valve on the right, are located between the atria and ventricles. During ventricular systole, when the ventricles contract and pressure rises sharply, the AV valves snap shut to prevent the high-pressure ventricular blood from flowing backward into the lower-pressure atria. This ensures unidirectional blood flow through the heart and is responsible for the first heart sound.

Why the other options are incorrect:
A. The tricuspid valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle, not the left atrium from the left ventricle. The valve that separates the left atrium from the left ventricle is the mitral, or bicuspid, valve.
B. The aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves control the flow of blood out of the heart into the aorta and pulmonary artery respectively, not into the heart. Blood flows into the heart through the AV valves, not the semilunar valves.
D. The mitral valve separates the left atrium from the left ventricle, not the right atrium from the right ventricle. The valve between the right atrium and right ventricle is the tricuspid valve, which has three cusps rather than two.
3.

A woman who wants to ensure conception might buy an "ovulation predictor" kit. Which of the following hormones, when detected by the kit, would be the best indicator of imminent ovulation?

  • Estrogens

  • FSH, follicle stimulating hormone

  • LH, luteinizing hormone

  • GnRH, gonadotropin hormone releasing hormone

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: (C) LH, luteinizing hormone
Ovulation predictor kits detect the LH surge in urine. A sharp rise in LH from the anterior pituitary triggers ovulation approximately 24–36 hours later, making it the most reliable hormonal indicator of imminent ovulation.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Estrogens — While estrogen rises during the follicular phase and triggers the LH surge, estrogen levels alone do not precisely pinpoint imminent ovulation as accurately as detecting the LH surge itself.
B. FSH, follicle stimulating hormone — FSH rises to stimulate follicle development earlier in the cycle but does not provide as precise a signal for imminent ovulation as the LH surge.
D. GnRH, gonadotropin hormone releasing hormone — GnRH is released from the hypothalamus in pulses and is not detectable in urine; it is not a practical marker for ovulation prediction.
4.

Blood flow is ______ proportional to the difference in blood pressure. Blood flow is ______ proportional to the total peripheral resistance.

  • Inversely; inversely

  • Directly; inversely

  • Directly; directly

  • Inversely; directly

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) Directly; inversely
Blood flow increases as the pressure difference increases (direct relationship), and decreases as peripheral resistance increases (inverse relationship). This follows the equation: Flow = Pressure difference / Resistance.

Why the other options are incorrect:
A. Inversely; inversely — Blood flow is not inversely related to pressure difference; higher pressure drives more flow.
C. Directly; directly — Blood flow is not directly proportional to resistance; higher resistance reduces flow.
D. Inversely; directly — Both relationships are reversed from what is physiologically correct.
5.

Slow, powerful contractions of the teniae coli, occurring 3-4 times a day, that move feces towards the rectum are called ______.

  • Peristalsis

  • Myogenic reflexes

  • Haustral contractions

  • Mass movements

Explanation

Explanation:
Correct Answer: (D) Mass movements
Mass movements are infrequent, powerful propulsive contractions that occur 3-4 times daily, typically after meals. They move large amounts of fecal material from the transverse colon toward the rectum and are associated with the gastrocolic reflex triggered by food entering the stomach.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Peristalsis — Peristalsis is a continuous wave-like propulsion that occurs throughout the GI tract; in the large intestine, movement is much slower and occurs as mass movements rather than regular peristaltic waves.
B. Myogenic reflexes — Myogenic reflexes refer to muscle contractions initiated intrinsically by the smooth muscle itself in response to stretch and are not specifically the slow, powerful movements that propel feces to the rectum.
C. Haustral contractions — Haustral contractions are local segmenting movements that slowly shuffle chyme back and forth within the haustra of the colon to aid water absorption, not to propel feces toward the rectum.
6.

Which statement best describes arteries?

  • All contain valves to prevent the backflow of blood.

  • All carry blood away from the heart.

  • Only large arteries are lined with endothelium.

  • All carry oxygenated blood to the heart.

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) All carry blood away from the heart
By definition, arteries are vessels that carry blood away from the heart, regardless of whether the blood is oxygenated or deoxygenated (e.g., the pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood away from the heart).

Why the other options are incorrect:
A. All contain valves to prevent the backflow of blood — Valves are found in veins, not arteries.
C. Only large arteries are lined with endothelium — All blood vessels, including small arteries and capillaries, are lined with endothelium.
D. All carry oxygenated blood to the heart — Arteries carry blood away from, not to, the heart; and the pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood.
7.

Replacing lost blood volume with an isotonic saline solution _______.

  • Lowers the patient's hematocrit

  • Restores the patient's blood glucose levels

  • Lowers the patient's blood volume

  • Restores the oxygen-carrying capacity of the circulation

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Lowers the patient's hematocrit.
When isotonic saline is infused to replace lost blood volume, it adds fluid to the intravascular space without adding red blood cells. This dilutes the existing red blood cells within a larger total volume, thereby lowering the hematocrit, which is the percentage of blood volume composed of red blood cells. This hemodilution effect is an expected consequence of crystalloid resuscitation without blood product replacement.

Why the other options are incorrect:
B. Isotonic saline does not contain glucose and has no effect on restoring blood glucose levels. Dextrose-containing solutions would be required to address glucose levels, not normal saline.
C. Isotonic saline expands intravascular volume by adding fluid to the circulation. It increases rather than lowers blood volume, which is the primary therapeutic goal of fluid resuscitation in a patient with blood loss.
D. Restoring oxygen-carrying capacity requires replacing red blood cells through blood transfusion, not saline infusion. Isotonic saline contains no hemoglobin and therefore cannot restore the oxygen-carrying capacity that is lost with red blood cell depletion.
8.

The velocity of blood flow is ______.

  • Slowest in the capillaries because the total cross-sectional area is the greatest

  • In direct proportion to the total cross-sectional area of the blood vessels

  • Slower in the veins than in the capillaries because veins have a large diameter

  • Slower in the arteries than in capillaries because arteries possess a relatively large diameter

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Slowest in the capillaries because the total cross-sectional area is the greatest
Blood flow velocity is inversely proportional to the total cross-sectional area. Capillaries have the greatest combined cross-sectional area of any vessel type, so blood moves most slowly there, allowing time for gas and nutrient exchange.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
B. In direct proportion to the total cross-sectional area — Velocity is inversely, not directly, proportional to cross-sectional area.
C. Slower in the veins than in the capillaries — Veins have a large cross-sectional area but blood moves faster in veins than in capillaries.
D. Slower in the arteries than in capillaries — Arteries have a smaller total cross-sectional area than capillaries, so blood actually moves faster in arteries.
9.

The digestive juice that contains enzymes capable of degrading all four major organic macromolecules is ______.

  • Salivary

  • Pancreatic

  • Biliary

  • Gastric

Explanation

Explanation:
Correct Answer: (B) Pancreatic
Pancreatic juice contains enzymes capable of digesting all four major macromolecule groups: pancreatic lipase for fats, pancreatic amylase for carbohydrates, proteases (trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase) for proteins, and nucleases for nucleic acids. No other digestive secretion contains enzymes targeting all four macromolecule categories.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Salivary — Saliva contains primarily salivary amylase for carbohydrate digestion and lingual lipase for limited fat digestion; it cannot degrade proteins or nucleic acids.
C. Biliary — Bile does not contain digestive enzymes at all; it emulsifies fats physically but performs no enzymatic digestion of any macromolecule.
D. Gastric — Gastric juice contains pepsin for protein digestion and gastric lipase for limited fat digestion but lacks carbohydrate-digesting and nucleic acid-digesting enzymes.
10.

Which of the following hormones acting on the distal convoluted tubule and the collecting duct is most responsible for retaining sodium ions in the blood?

  • Aldosterone

  • Antidiuretic hormone

  • Atrial natriuretic peptide

  • Parathyroid hormone

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Aldosterone
Aldosterone is a steroid hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex that acts on the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct to increase sodium reabsorption. By inserting more sodium channels and pumps into tubular cells, it promotes Na+ retention in the blood, which also drives water reabsorption and raises blood pressure.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:
B. Antidiuretic hormone — ADH acts on the collecting duct to increase water reabsorption by inserting aquaporins, but its primary target is water retention, not sodium retention.
C. Atrial natriuretic peptide — ANP has the opposite effect; it promotes sodium excretion (natriuresis) and lowers blood pressure, rather than retaining sodium.
D. Parathyroid hormone — PTH acts on the tubules to regulate calcium and phosphate reabsorption, not sodium retention.

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