Business of IT - Project Management (D324)

Business of IT - Project Management (D324)

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Free Business of IT - Project Management (D324) Questions

1.

If a project is halfway completed, its schedule performance index is 110 percent, and its cost performance index is 95 percent, how is it progressing?

  • It is ahead of schedule and under budget.

  • It is ahead of schedule and over budget.

  • It is behind schedule and under budget.

  • It is behind schedule and over budget.

Explanation

Correct Answer

b. It is ahead of schedule and over budget.

Explanation

Schedule Performance Index (SPI) = EV / PV. An SPI greater than 1 means the project is ahead of schedule, so 110 percent means the project is progressing ahead of schedule.

Cost Performance Index (CPI) = EV / AC. A CPI less than 1 means the project is over budget, so 95 percent means the project is over budget.


Why other options are wrong

a. It is ahead of schedule and under budget. - The CPI is less than 1, indicating the project is over budget, not under budget.

c. It is behind schedule and under budget. - The SPI is greater than 1, indicating the project is ahead of schedule, not behind.

d. It is behind schedule and over budget. - The SPI is greater than 1, indicating the project is ahead of schedule, not behind.


2.

What is the purpose of project quality management?

  • to produce the highest-quality products and services possible

  • to ensure that appropriate quality standards are met

  • to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs undertaken

  • all of the above

Explanation

Correct Answer

D. all of the above

Explanation

Project quality management involves ensuring that the project will meet the necessary quality standards, deliver products or services that meet the required needs, and produce the highest quality possible. It encompasses processes that monitor and control quality throughout the project lifecycle, focusing on meeting the expectations of stakeholders and satisfying project requirements.

Why other options are wrong

A. to produce the highest-quality products and services possible

While producing high-quality products and services is important, this option only focuses on the outcome and ignores the broader management of quality standards and stakeholder needs, which is a more comprehensive purpose of project quality management.

B. to ensure that appropriate quality standards are met

Meeting quality standards is an important aspect of quality management, but it does not cover the full scope of the purpose, which includes ensuring that the project satisfies the needs of the stakeholders, as well as focusing on continuous quality improvement.

C. to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs undertaken

This is an important aspect of project quality management but does not fully encompass all the goals, such as ensuring the highest quality and meeting appropriate standards.


3.

A new government law requires an organization to report data in a new way. Which of the following categories would include a new information system project to provide this data?

  • problem

  • opportunity

  • directive

  • regulation

Explanation

Correct Answer

D. regulation

Explanation

A regulation refers to a requirement imposed by a governing body, such as a law or policy, that dictates how organizations must operate. In this case, the new government law is a regulation that mandates a change in how data is reported. The organization must create or update an information system to comply with this law.

Why other options are wrong

A. problem

A problem would refer to an existing issue or challenge that needs to be resolved, such as operational inefficiencies or system failures. This is not the case here, as the law is a new requirement, not a problem to be solved.

B. opportunity

An opportunity is typically an advantageous situation that an organization can exploit for growth or improvement. While the new law may present an opportunity for better data reporting, the focus of the project is on compliance with the law, making regulation the more accurate category.

C. directive

A directive is an order or instruction from a higher authority but is generally broader than a regulation. In this case, the new law is a regulation that legally requires compliance, making "regulation" the more precise term.


4.

_____ causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment.

  • Intrinsic motivation

  • Extrinsic motivation

  • Self motivation

  • Social motivation

Explanation

Correct Answer

A. Intrinsic motivation

Explanation

Intrinsic motivation refers to doing something for the inherent satisfaction or enjoyment derived from the activity itself. People motivated by intrinsic factors engage in tasks because they find them enjoyable, interesting, or personally fulfilling, rather than for external rewards or pressures.

Why other options are wrong

B. Extrinsic motivation

Extrinsic motivation involves participating in an activity for external rewards, such as money, praise, or recognition, rather than for the enjoyment of the activity itself. This is the opposite of intrinsic motivation.

C. Self motivation

Self-motivation refers to the internal drive to accomplish goals without needing external encouragement. While closely related to intrinsic motivation, it is broader and can involve both intrinsic and extrinsic factors in motivating a person.

D. Social motivation

Social motivation involves participating in activities due to social factors, such as peer pressure or the desire to connect with others. It is not the same as intrinsic motivation, which is driven by personal enjoyment or satisfaction from the activity itself.


5.

If estimates for total discounted benefits for a project are $120,000 and total discounted costs are $100,000, what is the estimated return on investment ROI?

  • $20,000

  • $120,000

  • 20 percent

  • 120 percent

Explanation

Correct Answer

C. 20 percent

Explanation

The return on investment (ROI) is calculated by dividing the net benefit (total benefits minus total costs) by the total costs, then multiplying by 100 to express it as a percentage. In this case, the net benefit is \(120,000 -\)100,000 = $20,000. The ROI is then calculated as ($20,000 / \(100,000) * 100 = 20 percent. Why other options are wrong A.\)20,000

This value represents the net benefit of the project, not the return on investment (ROI). ROI is a percentage, not a dollar amount.

B. $120,000

This is the total discounted benefits, not the ROI. The ROI is a percentage that compares the net benefit to the total costs.

D. 120 percent

This would suggest the net benefit exceeds the total costs by 120 percent, which is incorrect. The actual ROI is 20 percent, based on the calculations above.


6.

What type of diagram shows planned and actual project schedule information?

  • a network diagram

  • a Gantt chart

  • a Tracking Gantt chart

  • a milestone chart

Explanation

Correct Answer

C. a Tracking Gantt chart

Explanation

A Tracking Gantt chart is used to compare the planned schedule with the actual schedule. It shows both the original planned timeline and the progress made so far, helping project managers monitor deviations from the plan. It provides a visual representation of the status of tasks and milestones in the project.

Why other options are wrong

A. a network diagram

A network diagram shows the logical relationships between tasks, such as dependencies and the critical path, but it does not display the actual versus planned schedule information. It focuses on task flow rather than time-based progress.

B. a Gantt chart

A Gantt chart typically displays the project schedule, showing planned tasks and durations. However, it does not explicitly show the comparison of planned versus actual timelines unless it is specifically a Tracking Gantt chart.

D. a milestone chart

A milestone chart tracks only the key milestones in a project but does not provide detailed information on the actual progress or schedule of all tasks, unlike a Tracking Gantt chart. It is more focused on critical dates rather than ongoing project tracking.


7.

Initiating involves developing a project charter, which is part of the project ______ management knowledge area.

  • integration

  • scope

  • communications

  • risk

Explanation

Correct Answer

A. integration

Explanation

In project management, developing a project charter falls under the "integration" knowledge area, which is part of the Project Integration Management process. This knowledge area focuses on coordinating all aspects of the project, ensuring that the project is aligned with organizational objectives. The project charter formally authorizes the project and defines its objectives, helping to integrate the various processes and stakeholders involved.

Why other options are wrong

B. scope

Scope management focuses on defining and controlling what is included in the project. While the project charter outlines high-level objectives, the detailed scope is defined later during the planning phase.

C. communications

Communications management focuses on ensuring that the right information is shared with the right stakeholders throughout the project. The project charter is not directly related to communications management.

D. risk

Risk management involves identifying, assessing, and managing risks that may affect the project. The development of the project charter is not part of the risk management knowledge area, although it may briefly mention high-level risks.


8.

Why did McDonald's terminate a large project after spending $170 million on it?

  • The company found better technology.

  • The company decided to outsource the work.

  • The scope was too much to handle.

  • The government requirement that prompted the project was repealed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D. The government requirement that prompted the project was repealed.

Explanation

McDonald's terminated the project after spending $170 million because the government requirement that initially prompted the project was repealed. This made the project unnecessary, leading the company to halt the initiative.

Why other options are wrong

A. The company found better technology.

Although technological advancements can influence decisions, there is no evidence that McDonald's found better technology that led to the termination of the project. The decision was based on the repeal of the government requirement.

B. The company decided to outsource the work.

Outsourcing the work was not the reason for the termination. The project was canceled because the external requirement was no longer in place.

C. The scope was too much to handle.

While scope management can be a factor in project decisions, the project was canceled due to the repeal of a government mandate, not because the scope was too challenging.


9.

Out of the following, which is untrue?

  • Growing grass was on the critical path for a large theme park project.

  • The critical path is the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which a project can be completed.

  • A forward pass through a project network diagram determines the early start and early finish dates for each activity.

  • Fast tracking is a technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule compression for the least incremental cost.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D. Fast tracking is a technique for making cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the greatest amount of schedule compression for the least incremental cost.

Explanation

Fast tracking involves overlapping project phases or activities that were originally scheduled to be performed sequentially. It is primarily focused on schedule compression rather than balancing cost and schedule. The statement in option D confuses fast tracking with crashing, which is the technique used to make cost and schedule trade-offs to achieve schedule compression at the least additional cost.

Why other options are wrong

A. Growing grass was on the critical path for a large theme park project.

This statement is true. For some projects, like the construction of a theme park, certain activities (such as growing grass or landscaping) might end up on the critical path if they cannot be accelerated or overlapped with other activities.

B. The critical path is the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which a project can be completed.

This statement is true. The critical path is the longest path in the project network and determines the earliest time the project can be completed, as delays in critical path activities will delay the entire project.

C. A forward pass through a project network diagram determines the early start and early finish dates for each activity.

This statement is true. A forward pass through the project network diagram helps determine the early start and finish dates for each activity by moving from the beginning to the end of the project timeline. This process helps in schedule planning.


10.

Power is based on a person's individual charisma.

  • Affiliation

  • Referent

  • Personality

  • Legitimate

Explanation

Correct Answer

B. Referent

Explanation

Referent power is based on a person’s ability to influence others through their charisma, personal traits, and likability. It is a form of power that arises from the respect and admiration others have for a person. Those with referent power are often seen as role models and are able to inspire and motivate others.

Why other options are wrong

A. Affiliation

Affiliation power is based on a person’s ability to create connections with others and build a network of relationships. While it can be related to charisma, it specifically refers to interpersonal connections, not just personal charm.

C. Personality

Personality is a broader term referring to the unique traits and characteristics of an individual. While a charismatic personality may contribute to referent power, personality itself is not a specific type of power in the context of leadership or influence.

D. Legitimate

Legitimate power is based on a person’s position within an organization or hierarchy. It comes from formal authority, not personal charisma or charm, and therefore does not align with power derived from charisma.


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