Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB)

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Free Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB) Questions

1.

Which of the following specimens requires a chain of custody form?

  • Blood for HIV testing
  • Sputum for tuberculosis testing
  • Blood for paternity testing
  • Swab for chlamydia testing

Explanation

Explanation
A chain of custody form is required for specimens that may be used as legal evidence, ensuring that the sample is properly collected, handled, and tracked from the patient to the laboratory. Blood for paternity testing is commonly used in legal cases, so strict documentation is necessary to maintain its integrity and admissibility in court. Routine diagnostic tests such as HIV, tuberculosis, or chlamydia do not typically require chain of custody procedures.
Correct Answer Is:
Blood for paternity testing
2.

Which of the following information should a phlebotomist document during a glucose tolerance test?

  • Flavor of the glucose solution
  • Time the glucose load was completed
  • Amount of water ingested during the procedure
  • Volume of blood obtained during the procedure

Explanation

Explanation
During a glucose tolerance test, it is essential to document the exact time the glucose load was completed. This allows accurate timing of subsequent blood draws to measure the patient’s glucose response at the specified intervals. While the flavor of the solution, amount of water, or volume of blood may be noted incidentally, they are not critical for interpreting test results. Accurate timing is crucial for proper assessment of glucose metabolism.
Correct Answer Is:
Time the glucose load was completed
Why the other options are incorrect:
While the flavor of the solution, amount of water, or volume of blood may be noted incidentally, they are not critical for interpreting test results. Accurate timing is crucial for proper assessment of glucose metabolism.
3.

How often should the shelves be checked for expired medications?

  • yearly
  • quarterly
  • monthly
  • weekly

Explanation

Explanation
Medication expiration is a critical patient safety concern. To prevent dispensing expired drugs, shelves should be checked monthly. This frequency allows pharmacists or pharmacy technicians to identify and remove expired or soon-to-expire medications in a timely manner, ensuring that only safe and effective medications are available to patients. Checking yearly or quarterly is too infrequent and increases the risk of errors, while weekly checks may be unnecessary for most pharmacy settings unless dealing with high-risk or fast-moving medications.
Correct Answer Is:
monthly
4.

A phlebotomist is called to the emergency department to draw blood from a patient who is in critical condition. Which of the following is the applicable consent for the procedure?

  • Informed
  • Implied
  • Expressed
  • Written

Explanation

Explanation
In emergency situations where a patient is unable to provide consent due to their critical condition, implied consent is assumed. This legal principle allows healthcare providers to perform necessary procedures to preserve life or prevent serious harm. Informed or expressed consent requires the patient’s active agreement, and written consent involves signing a document—these are not feasible in urgent or life-threatening scenarios.
Correct Answer Is:
Implied
Why the other options are incorrect:
Informed or expressed consent requires the patient’s active agreement, and written consent involves signing a document—these are not feasible in urgent or life-threatening scenarios.
5.

What is the brand name for oxycodone and acetaminophen?

  • Tylenol
  • Tylenol #3
  • Lortab
  • Percocet

Explanation

Explanation
Oxycodone and acetaminophen is a combination opioid analgesic used for moderate to severe pain. Its brand name is Percocet. Tylenol is acetaminophen alone, Tylenol #3 contains codeine and acetaminophen, and Lortab contains hydrocodone and acetaminophen, so they are different combinations.
Correct Answer Is:
Percocet
6.

Buspirone is classified as a:

  • anti-depressant
  • anti-psychotic
  • anti-convulsant
  • anti-hypertensive

Explanation

Explanation

Buspirone is an anti-anxiety medication classified as an anxiolytic. It is commonly used to manage generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) and works by affecting neurotransmitters in the brain, primarily serotonin. It is not an antidepressant, antipsychotic, anticonvulsant, or antihypertensive.
Correct Answer Is:
anti-depressant
7.

A total parenteral nutrition does not contain which of the following?

  • Diuretic
  • Electrolytes
  • Vitamins
  • Amino acids

Explanation

Explanation
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is a comprehensive intravenous nutritional regimen designed to provide all necessary macronutrients (amino acids, dextrose, lipids) and micronutrients (electrolytes, vitamins, trace elements) for patients unable to take food orally or enterally. Diuretics are pharmacologic agents used to manage fluid balance and are not a component of TPN, as TPN focuses solely on nutrition and not on therapeutic drug effects. Administering non-nutritive medications in TPN could disrupt the solution and pose safety risks.
Correct Answer Is:
Diuretic
8.

What is the term for the payment system for someone without prescription insurance?

  • Medicaid
  • Medicare
  • Tricare
  • Out-of-Pocket

Explanation

Explanation
“Out-of-pocket” refers to payments made directly by a patient for healthcare or prescription costs when they do not have insurance coverage. Unlike Medicaid, Medicare, or Tricare—which are government or military healthcare programs that provide coverage—out-of-pocket payments require the patient to pay the full cost of the medication or service themselves. Understanding this distinction helps patients manage their finances and make informed decisions about care.
Correct answer:
Out-of-Pocket
9.

Mr. Anderson wanted to check if his doctor called in an ACE inhibitor. Which one of these medications is considered an ACEi?

  • Ranitidine
  • Omeprazole
  • Ramipril
  • Hydromorphone

Explanation

Explanation
ACE inhibitors (ACEi) are medications that inhibit the angiotensin-converting enzyme, reducing the production of angiotensin II and lowering blood pressure. Ramipril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed for hypertension, heart failure, and renal protection in diabetic patients. Ranitidine is an H2 receptor antagonist (for acid reduction), omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor, and hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic. Recognizing ACE inhibitors is important for monitoring blood pressure, kidney function, and potential drug interactions.
Correct Answer Is:
Ramipril
10.

Which of the following should not be taken with amitriptyline due to the risk of serotonin syndrome?

  • sertraline
  • simvastatin
  • atenolol
  • acetaminophen

Explanation

Explanation
Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that increases serotonin levels in the central nervous system. Combining it with other serotonergic drugs, such as sertraline (an SSRI), can lead to excessive serotonin accumulation, causing serotonin syndrome—a potentially life-threatening condition characterized by agitation, hyperthermia, tremor, and autonomic instability. Medications like simvastatin, atenolol, or acetaminophen do not significantly affect serotonin levels, making them safe in this context. Understanding drug interactions at the neurotransmitter level is critical for preventing severe adverse events.
Correct Answer Is:
sertraline

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