ATI- RN Concept-Based Assessment Level 2 & 3 with NGN

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Free ATI- RN Concept-Based Assessment Level 2 & 3 with NGN Questions

1.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has HELLP syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

  • Placenta previa

  • Platelet count 98,000/mm³

  • Polyhydramnios

  • BUN 15 mg/dL

Explanation

The Correct Answer is:

B. Platelet count 98,000/mm³.


Detailed Explanation:

HELLP syndrome is a severe complication of preeclampsia characterized by Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, and Low Platelets. A platelet count of 98,000/mm³ is below the normal range (150,000–400,000/mm³) and indicates thrombocytopenia, which occurs due to platelet consumption and vascular damage. Clients with HELLP syndrome often present with right upper quadrant pain, nausea, vomiting, and malaise. Immediate management focuses on stabilizing the mother and preparing for delivery, as this condition poses serious risks for both mother and fetus.


2.

A nurse is assessing a client who has acute kidney failure and is in a state of metabolic acidosis. The nurse should monitor for which of the following manifestations?

  • Cool skin

  • Hypotension

  • Bounding peripheral pulses

  • Hyperreflexia

Explanation

The Correct Answer is:

B. Hypotension.


Detailed Explanation:

Metabolic acidosis in acute kidney failure occurs when the kidneys cannot excrete hydrogen ions or reabsorb bicarbonate, leading to acid buildup. This causes vasodilation and decreased myocardial contractility, resulting in hypotension. Clients may also exhibit Kussmaul respirations (deep, rapid breathing) as the body attempts to compensate by exhaling CO₂. Cool skin may occur with shock but is not specific to acidosis, bounding pulses are more typical in hypervolemia, and hyperreflexia occurs with alkalosis, not acidosis.


3.

A charge nurse is teaching a group of newly licensed nurses about postpartum complications. Which of the following conditions should the nurse include as a risk factor for the development of postpartum hemorrhage?

  • Oligohydramnios

  • Fetal intrauterine growth restriction

  • Prolonged labor

  • Primigravida

Explanation

The Correct Answer is:

C. Prolonged labor.

Detailed Explanation:

Prolonged labor is a significant risk factor for postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) because the uterus becomes fatigued from extended contractions, which can impair its ability to contract effectively after delivery. Ineffective uterine contraction, or uterine atony, is the leading cause of PPH. A uterus that fails to contract properly cannot compress the open blood vessels at the placental site, resulting in excessive bleeding. Oligohydramnios and fetal growth restriction are not associated with hemorrhage risk, and primigravida (first pregnancy) does not inherently increase PPH risk.


4.

A nurse is providing postoperative teaching to a client who had a coronary artery bypass graft due to arteriosclerosis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching regarding exercise?

  • "Stop exercising if your heart rate increases by 20 beats per minute from baseline."

  • "Begin by walking half a mile two times a day for the first week."

  • "Limit your exercise to an indoor facility to avoid exposure to the sun."

  • "If you experience angina, take a 10-minute rest period, then resume exercise."

Explanation

The Correct Answer is:

A. "Stop exercising if your heart rate increases by 20 beats per minute from baseline."


Detailed Explanation:

After a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), clients should exercise gradually and stop if their heart rate increases by more than 20 beats per minute from baseline or if they experience chest pain, dizziness, or shortness of breath. This helps prevent cardiac strain during recovery. Exercise should begin with short, slow-paced walks and progress as tolerated under medical supervision. Resting after angina requires medical evaluation before resuming activity.


5.

A nurse in a long-term care facility is planning care for a client who has advanced Alzheimer’s disease. Which of the following interventions should the nurse plan to use when communicating with the client?

  • Ask the client questions requiring a "yes" or "no" response.

  • Give the client three simple instructions at a time.

  • Avoid using hand gestures when talking with the client.

  • Assume that the client does not understand verbal instructions.

Explanation

The Correct Answer is:

A. Ask the client questions requiring a "yes" or "no" response."

Detailed Explanation:

Clients with advanced Alzheimer’s disease experience significant cognitive decline, including memory loss, difficulty processing complex language, and decreased attention span. The nurse should simplify communication by asking direct, closed-ended questions that require only a “yes” or “no” response, which reduces confusion and frustration.

Other helpful techniques include speaking slowly, using calm tone, maintaining eye contact, and supporting verbal communication with nonverbal cues such as gestures or demonstrations
. Giving multiple instructions at once overwhelms the client, and assuming they do not understand is disrespectful and may prevent engagement. Simplifying communication fosters trust, reduces anxiety, and promotes cooperation in care.


6.

A nurse is teaching a client who has generalized anxiety disorder and a new prescription of buspirone. The nurse should instruct the client to notify the provider of which of the following findings as an adverse effect of buspirone?

  • Hematuria

  • Hypoglycemia

  • Insomnia

  • Arthralgia

Explanation

The Correct Answer is:

D. Arthralgia.


Detailed Explanation:

Buspirone, a non-benzodiazepine anxiolytic, can cause arthralgia (joint pain), as well as other uncommon side effects like muscle pain, headache, dizziness, and nervousness. Clients should report joint pain to the provider for evaluation. Buspirone does not typically cause hematuria (blood in urine) or hypoglycemia. While insomnia may occasionally occur, it is generally mild and not considered a reportable adverse effect unless severe. Buspirone’s therapeutic effects may take 2–4 weeks to appear.


7.

A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who has obsessive-compulsive disorder and is becoming increasingly anxious. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

  • Administer an anti-anxiety medication to the client.

  • Provide reassurance of safety to the client.

  • Complete the client's assessment.

  • Teach the client about manifestations of anxiety

Explanation

The Correct Answer is:

B. Provide reassurance of safety to the client.

Detailed Explanation:

When a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) becomes increasingly anxious, the nurse’s first priority is to ensure the client’s sense of safety. Anxiety can quickly escalate into panic, and reassurance helps the client regain emotional stability. Once the client feels safe, further interventions—such as administering medication, completing the assessment, or providing education—can follow. Administering medication without addressing immediate emotional needs is premature, and teaching should occur only after the client’s anxiety is reduced enough to focus and retain information.


8.

A home health nurse is evaluating adherence to the plan of care for several clients who have bipolar disorder and are taking lithium. Which of the following clients is demonstrating compliance?

  • A female client who reports that she is actively trying to conceive

  • A young adult client who reports exercising 4 hr daily at a local gym

  • A male client who reports getting 7 hr of sleep each night

  • An older adult client who reports following a low-sodium diet

Explanation

The Correct Answer is:

C. A male client who reports getting 7 hr of sleep each night.

Detailed Explanation:

Adequate sleep and rest are vital for clients taking lithium and managing bipolar disorder, as sleep deprivation can trigger manic or depressive episodes. Maintaining consistent routines, including sufficient rest, hydration, and balanced nutrition, supports mood stability and safe lithium levels.

Lithium has a narrow therapeutic range
, and several factors can increase the risk of toxicity. Low sodium intake and excessive exercise lead to dehydration and sodium loss, which raise lithium levels dangerously. Lithium is teratogenic, especially during the first trimester, so women planning pregnancy must discuss safer alternatives with their provider. Thus, the client getting 7 hours of sleep nightly demonstrates the best adherence to both medication safety and bipolar management strategies.


9.

A nurse is providing teaching about varenicline to a client who is in a smoking cessation program. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

  • "Take this medication for the full course of 30 days and do not repeat the course."

  • "This medication can cause drowsiness."

  • "Do not eat grapefruit while taking this medication."

  • "Plan to start taking this medication 1 week before you stop smoking."

Explanation

The Correct Answer is:

D. "Plan to start taking this medication 1 week before you stop smoking."

Detailed Explanation:

Varenicline (Chantix) is a partial nicotine receptor agonist that helps reduce nicotine cravings and withdrawal symptoms by partially stimulating nicotine receptors in the brain while blocking nicotine’s pleasurable effects. The client should begin taking varenicline 1 week before their planned quit date so that steady-state medication levels are achieved by the time they stop smoking.

The typical course lasts 12 weeks and may be extended if additional support is needed. Clients should be instructed to take the medication
after eating and with a full glass of water to minimize nausea, a common side effect. Other possible effects include insomnia, vivid dreams, mood changes, and suicidal ideation—so ongoing assessment for behavioral changes is essential.

Grapefruit restrictions and short 30-day courses do not apply to varenicline therapy, and while mild sleep disturbance can occur, drowsiness is not a typical effect.


10.

A nurse is assessing a 6-month-old infant who has cerebral palsy. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

  • Absence of head lag

  • Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes

  • Difficulty sucking and swallowing

  • Absence of palmar grasp reflex

Explanation

The Correct Answer is:

C. Difficulty sucking and swallowing.

Detailed Explanation:

Infants with cerebral palsy (CP) often exhibit difficulty sucking and swallowing due to oromotor dysfunction caused by impaired neuromuscular control. These feeding difficulties can result in poor weight gain, drooling, and risk for aspiration. The problem stems from abnormal muscle tone—commonly hypertonia—affecting coordination of the tongue and facial muscles.

In contrast, head lag
often persists beyond the expected age (around 4 months) in infants with CP, rather than being absent. Deep tendon reflexes are typically hyperactive, not hypoactive, because of spasticity. The palmar grasp reflex may persist abnormally rather than disappear at the normal age, reflecting delayed neurological maturation.


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