PHYS 2102 C876 Conceptual Physics
Access The Exact Questions for PHYS 2102 C876 Conceptual Physics
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock Actual Exam Questions and Answers for PHYS 2102 C876 Conceptual Physics on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Free PHYS 2102 C876 Conceptual Physics Questions
A star is moving directly towards Earth. How will the star appear different from an identical star at the same distance that is not moving relative to Earth?
-
Its light will be blueshifted.
-
Its light will be redshifted.
-
It will appear dimmer.
-
No difference in appearance is expected.
Explanation
Explanation:
When a star moves toward an observer, the wavelengths of the light it emits are compressed due to the Doppler effect. This compression shifts the light toward the blue end of the spectrum, a phenomenon known as blueshift. The faster the star approaches, the greater the shift. In contrast, a star moving away would exhibit redshift. The apparent brightness of the star may change slightly due to distance or relativistic effects, but the primary observable difference is the shift in wavelength.
Correct Answer:
Its light will be blueshifted.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
Its light will be redshifted.
This is incorrect because redshift occurs when a star is moving away from the observer, not toward them. Motion toward Earth compresses wavelengths rather than stretching them.
It will appear dimmer.
This is incorrect because the question assumes equal distances for both stars. Motion toward Earth does not inherently reduce brightness; if anything, slight relativistic effects could make it appear slightly brighter.
No difference in appearance is expected.
This is incorrect because the Doppler effect causes a measurable change in the wavelength of light from a moving star, making it different from a stationary star at the same distance.
Explain why it is impossible to isolate a single magnetic pole by breaking a magnet in half.
-
Breaking a magnet always creates two new magnets, each with both a north and a south pole.
-
Magnetic poles are not physical entities but rather fields of force.
-
Only certain types of magnets can be broken to isolate poles.
-
The magnetic field is too weak to allow for isolation of a pole.
Explanation
Explanation:
When a magnet is broken into smaller pieces, each piece forms its own north and south pole, regardless of the size of the pieces. This occurs because the magnetic domains within the material always align in dipole pairs. Magnetic poles cannot exist in isolation because they are intrinsic to the dipolar nature of the magnetic domains. This fundamental property of magnets means that a single, isolated north or south pole cannot be created by breaking a magnet.
Correct Answer:
Breaking a magnet always creates two new magnets, each with both a north and a south pole.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
Magnetic poles are not physical entities but rather fields of force.
This is incorrect because magnetic poles correspond to regions where magnetic field lines emerge or converge. They are physical manifestations of domain alignment, not just abstract fields.
Only certain types of magnets can be broken to isolate poles.
This is incorrect because no type of conventional magnet can be broken to produce a single pole. All pieces retain north and south poles.
The magnetic field is too weak to allow for isolation of a pole.
This is incorrect because the inability to isolate a pole is a structural property of magnets, not due to the strength of the magnetic field. Even very strong magnets cannot produce an isolated pole
Which does sound travel fastest through
-
liquid
-
solid
-
gas
Explanation
Explanation:
Sound travels as a mechanical wave that propagates through the vibration of particles in a medium. The speed of sound depends on the density and elasticity of the medium. Solids have particles that are closely packed and strongly bonded, allowing vibrations to transmit more efficiently than in liquids or gases. Liquids transmit sound faster than gases because they are denser and less compressible than gases, but not as fast as solids. Therefore, sound travels fastest through solids.
Correct Answer:
solid
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
liquid
This is incorrect because although sound travels faster in liquids than in gases, it is slower than in solids due to lower particle density and elasticity.
gas
This is incorrect because gases have widely spaced particles and lower elasticity, resulting in the slowest propagation of sound compared to liquids and solids.
Which of the following would show the largest temperature increase upon gaining 10.0 J of heat?
-
1 g water (specific heat= 4.184 J/gC)
-
2 g carbon (graphite)(specific heat= 0.720 J/gC)
-
5 g iron (specific heat= 0.451 J/gC)
-
5 g copper (specific heat= 0.385 J/gC)
-
20 g gold (specific heat= 0.128 J/gC)
Explanation
Explanation:
The temperature change of an object is given by ΔT = Qmc', where Q is the heat added, m is the mass, and c is the specific heat. A smaller mass and lower specific heat result in a larger temperature increase for the same amount of heat. Calculating ΔT for each:
- Water: ΔT=10/(1⋅4.184)≈2.39°C
- Carbon: ΔT=10/(2⋅0.720)≈6.94°C
- Iron: ΔT=10/(5⋅0.451)≈4.44°C
- Copper: ΔT=10/(5⋅0.385)≈5.19°C
- Gold: ΔT=10/(20⋅0.128)≈3.91°C
The largest temperature increase occurs for 2 g of carbon.
Correct Answer:
2 g carbon (graphite)(specific heat= 0.720 J/gC)
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
1 g water (specific heat= 4.184 J/gC)
This is incorrect because water has a very high specific heat, meaning it requires more energy to raise its temperature. Therefore, the temperature increase is smaller compared to substances with lower specific heat.
5 g iron (specific heat= 0.451 J/gC)
This is incorrect because, although iron has a lower specific heat than water, the larger mass reduces the temperature change, making it smaller than carbon’s increase.
5 g copper (specific heat= 0.385 J/gC)
This is incorrect because the larger mass offsets the low specific heat, resulting in a smaller temperature increase than carbon despite copper’s low specific heat.
20 g gold (specific heat= 0.128 J/gC)
This is incorrect because the very large mass of gold significantly reduces the temperature rise, even though it has a low specific heat.
A car accelerates from 0.0 to 33 m/s in 6.0 seconds. What is the magnitude of the acceleration?
-
5.5 m/s^2
-
198 m/s^2
-
0.18 m/s^2
-
594 m/s^2
Explanation
Explanation:
Acceleration is defined as the change in velocity divided by the time taken: a = ΔvΔt. The car’s velocity changes from 0.0 to 33 m/s over 6.0 seconds, so a = 33−06 =5.5 m/s. This is the magnitude of the car’s acceleration.
Correct Answer:
5.5 m/s^2
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
198 m/s^2
This is incorrect because it overestimates the acceleration. The calculation of Δv/Δt clearly gives 5.5 m/s², not 198 m/s².
0.18 m/s^2
This is incorrect because it underestimates the acceleration by a factor of approximately 30. The correct calculation produces a much larger value.
594 m/s^2
This is incorrect because it is unrealistically high for a car. The correct formula and numbers yield 5.5 m/s², not hundreds of m/s².
If the mass of the toy is increased to 1.0 kg while keeping the force exerted on the string at 5.5 N and the length of the string at 0.65 m, what will be the new speed of the toy in circular motion?
-
1.5 m/s
-
2.0 m/s
-
2.5 m/s
-
3.0 m/s
Explanation
Explanation:
For an object in uniform circular motion, the centripetal force Fc is related to mass m, speed v, and radius r by the formula Fc= mv2r. Rearranging for speed: v = FCrm. Substituting the given values: v = 5.5*0.651.0 = 3.575 ≈ 1.89 m/s. The speed is closest to 2.0 m/s.
Correct Answer:
2.0 m/s
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
1.5 m/s
This is incorrect because it underestimates the speed calculated using the centripetal force equation. The correct calculation yields approximately 1.89 m/s.
2.5 m/s
This is incorrect because it overestimates the speed. Using the given force, mass, and radius, the speed cannot reach 2.5 m/s.
3.0 m/s
This is incorrect because this speed significantly exceeds the value determined from the centripetal force formula. The correct speed is lower due to the given force and mass.
Which of these is an example of a fusion reaction?
-
A nuclear power plant
-
A solar battery
-
A combustion engine
-
A geiger counter
-
The sun
Explanation
Explanation:
Nuclear fusion is the process where lighter atomic nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus, releasing energy. The sun produces energy through the fusion of hydrogen nuclei into helium. None of the other listed devices or processes involve nuclear fusion; they operate through chemical reactions or electricity conversion.
Correct Answer:
The sun
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
A nuclear power plant
This is incorrect because most nuclear power plants operate using nuclear fission, splitting heavy atoms like uranium, not fusion.
A solar battery
This is incorrect because a solar battery converts sunlight into electrical energy via the photovoltaic effect, not through nuclear fusion.
A combustion engine
This is incorrect because combustion engines release energy through chemical reactions, not nuclear fusion.
A geiger counter
This is incorrect because a Geiger counter detects ionizing radiation; it does not produce energy through fusion.
If the distance between two charged plates is reduced from 2 m to 0.5 m, what will be the effect on the electric field strength? Assume the charge on the plates remains constant. Calculate the factor by which the electric field strength changes.
-
It increases by a factor of 2.
-
It increases by a factor of 4.
-
It increases by a factor of 8.
-
It remains unchanged.
Explanation
Explanation:
The electric field strength between two parallel plates is given by E = V/d, where V is the potential difference and d is the separation between the plates. Reducing the distance from 2 m to 0.5 m decreases the denominator by a factor of 4, so the electric field strength increases by a factor of 4, assuming the voltage (or charge) remains constant. This illustrates the inverse proportionality between electric field strength and plate separation.
Correct Answer:
It increases by a factor of 4.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
It increases by a factor of 2.
This is incorrect because reducing the distance from 2 m to 0.5 m is a fourfold decrease, not twofold. Therefore, the electric field strength increases by a factor of 4, not 2.
It increases by a factor of 8.
This is incorrect because the distance change does not result in an eightfold increase. Only a fourfold reduction in distance occurs, so the increase factor is 4.
It remains unchanged.
This is incorrect because the electric field strength is inversely proportional to the distance between the plates. Reducing the distance increases the field strength; it does not remain the same.
Which of the following correctly defines power in relation to work?
-
Power is the total amount of work done.
-
Power is the rate at which work is done.
-
Power is the force applied over a distance.
-
Power is the energy transferred over time.
Explanation
Explanation:
Power is defined as the rate at which work is done or energy is transferred. Mathematically, it is expressed as P = Wt, where W is work and tt is the time taken. This definition emphasizes that power measures how quickly work is performed, not the total amount of work itself.
Correct Answer:
Power is the rate at which work is done.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
Power is the total amount of work done.
This is incorrect because total work measures energy transferred, but power specifically measures how fast that work is done, not the cumulative amount.
Power is the force applied over a distance.
This is incorrect because force applied over a distance defines work, not power. Power involves the additional factor of time.
Power is the energy transferred over time.
This is partially correct in concept, but the more precise definition is that power is the rate of doing work. While energy transferred over time can describe power, the standard definition in physics emphasizes work done per unit time.
A trapeze artist, with a swing, weighs 800 N; he is being held to one side by his partner so that the swing ropes make an angle of 30.0° with the vertical. In such a condition of static equilibrium what is the tension in the rope?
-
924 N
-
400 N
-
196 N
-
461 N
-
786 N
Explanation
Explanation:
In static equilibrium, the vertical component of the tension in the rope must balance the weight of the trapeze artist. Let T be the tension, and θ = 30° the angle with the vertical. The vertical component is T cos θ = W, so T = wcosθ =800cosθ. Since cos 30°≈ 0.866, T ≈ 8000.866 ≈ 924 N. Therefore, the tension in the rope is 924 N.
Correct Answer:
924 N
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
400 N
This is incorrect because it underestimates the tension. It does not account for the angle and the need for the vertical component to support the weight.
196 N
This is incorrect because it significantly underestimates the tension. The vertical component of such a small tension would not balance the 800 N weight.
461 N
This is incorrect because it only accounts for roughly half of the necessary tension to balance the vertical weight component.
786 N
This is incorrect because it underestimates the required tension. The correct calculation using T = Wcosθ gives 924 N.
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .