HESI A2-Anatomy & Physiology

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Ace Your Test with A2-Anatomy & Physiology Actual Questions and Solutions - Full Set

Free HESI A2-Anatomy & Physiology Questions

1.

Which muscle of the quadriceps femoris group lies on the side surface of the lower extremity?

  • A. Gastrocnemius
  • B. Vastus lateralis
  • C. Anterior tibialis
  • D. Rectus femoris

Explanation

Explanation
The vastus lateralis is the largest and most lateral muscle of the quadriceps femoris group. It lies on the outer (lateral) side of the thigh and plays a key role in knee extension. The gastrocnemius is in the calf, the anterior tibialis is in the front of the lower leg, and the rectus femoris runs centrally along the thigh, not on the side.
Correct Answer Is:
B. Vastus lateralis
2.

Neutrophils are most effective at:

  • A. fighting parasitic infection​
  • B. antibody formation​
  • C. fighting a viral infection​
  • D. fighting a bacterial infection

Explanation

Explanation
D. Fighting a bacterial infection​
Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in the body’s immune response. They are particularly effective at fighting bacterial infections. Neutrophils are the most abundant type of white blood cells in circulation and are part of the body’s innate immune system, which is the first line of defense against pathogens. Neutrophils are highly specialized for recognizing, engulfing, and destroying bacteria through a process called phagocytosis. When there is a bacterial infection, neutrophils are one of the first immune cells to arrive at the site of infection, where they help contain and eliminate the bacteria.
3.

Which WBC is the most prevalent?

  • A. Monocyte​
  • B. Basophil​
  • C. Eosinophil​
  • D. Neutrophil

Explanation

Explanation
D. Neutrophil
Neutrophils are the most prevalent white blood cells (WBCs) in the bloodstream, making up approximately 60-70% of the total white blood cell count. They are part of the body’s innate immune system and play a crucial role in defending against bacterial infections. Neutrophils are phagocytes, meaning they can ingest and destroy bacteria and other pathogens. They are often the first immune cells to arrive at the site of an infection.
4.

Which anatomical structure houses the terminal bronchioles?

  • A Heart.
  • B Femur.
  • C Diaphysis.
  • D Lung.

Explanation

Explanation
The terminal bronchioles are the smallest airways within the respiratory system and are located inside the lungs. They mark the end of the conducting zone and lead into the respiratory bronchioles, where gas exchange begins. Each lung contains millions of bronchioles that branch from larger bronchi, allowing the passage of air to reach the alveoli where oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged.
5.

Which structure is located on the sternum?

  • A. Hyoid bone
  • B. Ossa Coxae
  • C. Sesamoid bone
  • D. Xiphoid process

Explanation

Explanation
The xiphoid process is the small, cartilaginous lower portion of the sternum. It ossifies with age and serves as an important anatomical landmark for CPR hand placement and attachment for several muscles, including the diaphragm. The hyoid bone is located in the neck, the ossa coxae form the pelvis, and sesamoid bones (like the patella) are embedded within tendons—not on the sternum.
Correct Answer Is:
D. Xiphoid process
6.

The urinary bladder and internal reproductive organs are found in which cavity?

  • A. Thoracic cavity
  • B. Pelvic cavity
  • C. Pleural cavity
  • D. Abdominal cavity

Explanation

Explanation
The pelvic cavity contains the urinary bladder, internal reproductive organs (such as the uterus, ovaries, prostate), and the lower portion of the large intestine. The thoracic cavity houses the heart and lungs, the pleural cavity encloses the lungs specifically, and the abdominal cavity contains digestive organs—none of which include the bladder or reproductive organs.
Correct Answer Is:
B. Pelvic cavity
7.

Release of hormones from which endocrine gland is directly influenced by hormones from the Hypothalamus?

  • A.​anterior pituitary gland
  • B.​posterior pituitary gland
  • C.​adrenal gland
  • D.​pineal gland

Explanation

Explanation
A. Anterior pituitary gland​
The anterior pituitary, also known as the adenohypophysis, is directly influenced by hormones secreted from the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus communicates with the anterior pituitary through a specialized blood vessel system called the hypophyseal portal system. This allows releasing and inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus to travel directly to the anterior pituitary and regulate its function. Examples of hypothalamic hormones include:
●​Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) → stimulates TSH release​
●​Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) → stimulates ACTH release​
●​Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) → stimulates LH and FSH release​
●​Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) → stimulates GH release​
These interactions make the anterior pituitary uniquely dependent on hypothalamic signals for its hormone secretion.​
8.

If the thymus shrank and stopped making hormones in a child, we would expect to see a decrease in the number of:

  • A. Neutrophils​
  • B. Lymphocytes (B cells)​
  • C. T lymphocytes (T cells)​
  • D. Eosinophils

Explanation

Explanation
C. T lymphocytes (T cells)​
The thymus is a primary lymphoid organ essential for the development of T lymphocytes (T cells). The thymus is responsible for the maturation and differentiation of T cells from their precursors, which originate in the bone marrow. When the thymus is not functioning properly, as in the case of it shrinking or stopping hormone production, T cells will be significantly affected. As a result, there would be a decrease in the number of mature T cells available for immune responses. T cells play a crucial role in the adaptive immune system, helping to identify and destroy infected or cancerous cells.
9.

Which type of skin cancer can be recognized in the lesion’s character based on the ABCD rule?

  • A. Sarcoma
  • B. Basal cell carcinoma
  • C. Melanoma
  • D. Squamous cell carcinoma

Explanation

Explanation
The ABCD rule—Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, and Diameter greater than 6 mm—is a clinical guideline specifically used to identify melanoma, the most dangerous form of skin cancer. Melanomas typically show uneven shape, jagged borders, multiple colors, and progressive enlargement. These features distinguish them from basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas, which usually appear as localized lesions without the characteristic ABCD changes. The rule is therefore a key early detection tool for melanoma.
Correct Answer Is:
C. Melanoma
10.

The lymphatic ducts in the thoracic cavity eventually drain into the:

  • A. Inferior vena cava​
  • B. External jugular vein​
  • C. Junction of the internal jugular vein and subclavian vein​
  • D. Junction of the brachiocephalic vein and the superior vena cava

Explanation

Explanation
C. Junction of the internal jugular vein and subclavian vein​
The thoracic duct, which is the main lymphatic duct in the body, drains lymph from the majority of the body (excluding the right upper quadrant). It empties into the junction of the left internal jugular vein and the left subclavian vein. This is the point where lymph is returned to the bloodstream. The right lymphatic duct, which drains the right upper quadrant of the body, empties at the junction of the right internal jugular vein and right subclavian vein.

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