NKU MSN675 Psych Test 1.
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Free NKU MSN675 Psych Test 1. Questions
Which of the following is not recommended for sleep hygiene?
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Watching the clock
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Avoiding naps
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Maintaining a consistent sleep schedule
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Journaling before bed
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (A) Watching the clock
Watching the clock while trying to fall asleep increases anxiety about sleep and reinforces a negative association with bedtime, which can worsen insomnia. This behavior is discouraged as part of good sleep hygiene practices.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
B. Avoiding naps — Avoiding naps, particularly late in the day, is recommended to help consolidate nighttime sleep and is a positive sleep hygiene practice.
C. Maintaining a consistent sleep schedule — This is a core recommended sleep hygiene practice that helps regulate the body's internal clock.
D. Journaling before bed — This can help clear the mind of worries before sleep and is a recommended relaxation technique for good sleep hygiene.
Which category best describes the Zung Scale, the Raskin Depression Scale, and the Hamilton Depression Rating Scale (HAM-D)?
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Cognitive-behavioral therapy interventions
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Neuropsychological memory assessments
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Standardized depression rating scales
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Tools used exclusively for bipolar disorder screening
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (C) Standardized depression rating scales
The Zung Scale, Raskin Depression Scale, and Hamilton Depression Rating Scale (HAM-D) are all standardized, validated tools used to assess the presence and severity of depressive symptoms, aiding clinicians in diagnosis and monitoring treatment response.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy interventions — These scales are assessment tools, not therapeutic interventions.
B. Neuropsychological memory assessments — These scales assess depressive symptoms, not memory or cognitive function.
D. Tools used exclusively for bipolar disorder screening — These scales are specifically designed to assess depressive symptoms, not to screen exclusively for bipolar disorder.
Which lifestyle factor is important in managing mood disorders?
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Avoiding exercise
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Maintaining regular exercise
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Increasing caffeine intake
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Sleeping irregular hours
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (B) Maintaining regular exercise
Regular physical activity has been shown to improve mood, reduce symptoms of depression and anxiety, and support overall mental health, making it an important lifestyle factor in the management of mood disorders.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Avoiding exercise — Avoiding exercise removes a beneficial, evidence-based lifestyle intervention for mood regulation.
C. Increasing caffeine intake — Excessive caffeine can worsen anxiety, disrupt sleep, and negatively affect mood stability, making it counterproductive for managing mood disorders.
D. Sleeping irregular hours — Irregular sleep patterns can disrupt circadian rhythms and worsen mood symptoms, making consistent sleep schedules important instead.
When treating bipolar disorder, lithium should be: (chose your answer)
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Stopped abruptly
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Avoided in all cases
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Tapered slowly if discontinued
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Used only during acute mania
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (C) Tapered slowly if discontinued
Lithium should always be tapered gradually when discontinuation is necessary, as abrupt cessation significantly increases the risk of relapse into mania or depression. A slow taper allows for closer monitoring and reduces the likelihood of rebound mood episodes.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Stopped abruptly — Abrupt discontinuation significantly increases the risk of rapid relapse into a manic or depressive episode.
B. Avoided in all cases — Lithium is a well-established, effective first-line treatment for bipolar disorder and is not something to be avoided in all cases.
D. Used only during acute mania — Lithium is used for both acute management and long-term maintenance therapy to prevent future mood episodes, not just during acute mania.
Which of the following is NOT considered a mood disorder?
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Major depressive disorder
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Bipolar I disorder
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Bipolar II disorder
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Schizophrenia
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (D) Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is classified as a primary psychotic disorder, characterized by symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking, rather than a mood disorder. Mood disorders are primarily defined by disturbances in mood, such as depression or mania.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Major depressive disorder — This is classified as a mood disorder characterized by persistent low mood and related symptoms.
B. Bipolar I disorder — This is a mood disorder involving full manic episodes, often with depressive episodes as well.
C. Bipolar II disorder — This is a mood disorder involving hypomanic and major depressive episodes.
A 40-year-old patient presents with persistent low mood but denies being "depressed," stating instead that he feels "down and blue most days." He reports difficulty accepting the possibility of a depressive disorder. Which term best captures the core mood disturbance he is describing?
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Dysphoria
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Anhedonia
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Euthymia
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Avolition
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (A) Dysphoria
Dysphoria refers to a state of persistent unease, sadness, or low mood, which aligns with the patient's description of feeling "down and blue" without explicitly labeling it as depression. This term captures the general mood disturbance the patient is describing, independent of a formal diagnostic label.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
B. Anhedonia — This term refers specifically to the loss of interest or pleasure in activities, not the general low mood the patient describes.
C. Euthymia — This term describes a normal, stable mood state, which is the opposite of what this patient is experiencing.
D. Avolition — This term refers to a lack of motivation to initiate or complete goal-directed activities, not a mood disturbance itself.
Which of the following interventions is recommended to assist with good sleep hygiene?
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Journaling to identify patterns
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Exercising vigorously right before bed
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Watching TV in bed
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Drinking caffeine in the evening
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (A) Journaling to identify patterns
Journaling can help individuals identify patterns related to their sleep, such as triggers for poor sleep or effective routines, supporting better sleep hygiene practices as part of a comprehensive approach to improving sleep quality.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
B. Exercising vigorously right before bed — Vigorous exercise close to bedtime can increase alertness and body temperature, making it harder to fall asleep.
C. Watching TV in bed — This disrupts the association between the bed and sleep, and screen exposure can interfere with the body's natural sleep-wake cycle.
D. Drinking caffeine in the evening — Caffeine is a stimulant that can interfere with the ability to fall asleep and reduce overall sleep quality.
Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT) is best described as:
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A medication-based approach used to stabilize mood
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A structured, goal-oriented therapy that targets distorted thoughts and maladaptive behaviors
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A nondirective therapy focused solely on exploring childhood experiences
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A free-association technique used to uncover unconscious conflicts
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (B) A structured, goal-oriented therapy that targets distorted thoughts and maladaptive behaviors
Cognitive behavioral therapy is a structured, evidence-based psychotherapy that helps patients identify and modify distorted thought patterns and maladaptive behaviors, working toward specific, measurable therapeutic goals.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. A medication-based approach used to stabilize mood — CBT is a psychotherapeutic approach, not a medication-based treatment.
C. A nondirective therapy focused solely on exploring childhood experiences — This describes aspects of psychodynamic therapy, not the structured, present-focused approach of CBT.
D. A free-association technique used to uncover unconscious conflicts — This describes classical psychoanalysis, not cognitive behavioral therapy.
A 52-year-old patient with severe depression reports hearing a voice telling him he is "worthless" and that he has committed unforgivable sins. He also believes he is responsible for his family's financial ruin despite no evidence of this. Which diagnosis best explains these symptoms?
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Major depressive episode with mood-incongruent psychotic features
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Schizoaffective disorder, depressive type
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Major depressive episode with mood-congruent psychotic features
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Bipolar disorder, depressive episode with mixed features
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (C) Major depressive episode with mood-congruent psychotic features
The patient's delusions and hallucinations center on themes of worthlessness, guilt, and unforgivable sin, all of which are consistent with the depressive mood state. When psychotic content directly aligns with the prevailing mood, such as depressive themes of guilt and worthlessness, this is classified as mood-congruent psychotic features.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Major depressive episode with mood-incongruent psychotic features — This would apply if the psychotic content were unrelated to the depressive themes, such as persecutory or bizarre delusions unrelated to mood.
B. Schizoaffective disorder, depressive type — This diagnosis requires psychotic symptoms to occur independently of mood episodes for a significant period, which is not indicated in this case.
D. Bipolar disorder, depressive episode with mixed features — There is no evidence in this presentation of concurrent manic or hypomanic symptoms, which would be required for a mixed features specifier.
Transcranial Magnetic Stimulation (TMS) is used for:
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Depression without suicidality
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Acute mania
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Dementia
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Eating disorders
Explanation
Explanation:
Correct Answer: (A) Depression without suicidality
Transcranial magnetic stimulation is an FDA-approved, noninvasive treatment used for treatment-resistant depression in patients who are not actively suicidal. It is typically considered after standard antidepressant therapies have failed to produce adequate improvement.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
B. Acute mania — TMS is not indicated for the treatment of acute manic episodes.
C. Dementia — TMS is not a standard or approved treatment for neurocognitive disorders such as dementia.
D. Eating disorders — TMS is not a first-line or standard treatment for eating disorders.
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