ATI Comprehensive Medical Surgical Exam
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Free ATI Comprehensive Medical Surgical Exam Questions
A nurse manager is planning an in-service about conflict in the workplace. The nurse should identify that which of the following stages is the first stage of the conflict process
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Felt conflict
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Conflict aftermath
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Manifest conflict
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Latent conflict
Explanation
Correct Answer D. Latent conflict
Explanation
Latent conflict is the first stage of the conflict process. It exists when conditions are present that could lead to conflict, such as differences in goals, values, communication styles, or resource allocation, but no conflict has yet occurred or been recognized. Awareness and acknowledgment typically emerge in later stages.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. Felt conflict
This stage occurs after awareness develops, when individuals begin to experience emotional responses such as tension, frustration, or anxiety.
B. Conflict aftermath
This is the final stage, which involves the outcome or resolution of the conflict and its impact on future interactions.
C. Manifest conflict
This stage involves open confrontation or action, such as arguing or refusing to cooperate. It occurs after latent and felt conflict stages.
A nurse is caring for a client who has developed sinus bradycardia following a myocardial infarction. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer
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Digoxin
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Propranolol
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Atropine
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Adenosine
Explanation
Correct Answer C. Atropine
Explanation
Atropine is the first-line medication used to treat symptomatic sinus bradycardia. It works by blocking the vagus nerve's effect on the heart, increasing the heart rate. In clients with bradycardia following a myocardial infarction, prompt administration of atropine can help restore adequate cardiac output.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. Digoxin
Digoxin slows the heart rate and increases cardiac contractility. It is contraindicated in bradycardia, as it could worsen the condition.
B. Propranolol
Propranolol is a beta-blocker that further decreases the heart rate and is not appropriate in cases of bradycardia.
D. Adenosine
Adenosine is used to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), not bradycardia. It temporarily slows conduction through the AV node and would worsen a slow heart rate.
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving mannitol for increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an adverse effect of this medication
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Hyperglycemia
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Dehydration
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Tinnitus
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Peripheral edema
Explanation
Correct Answer B. Dehydration
Explanation
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure by drawing fluid out of brain tissue. A common adverse effect is dehydration due to excessive diuresis. The nurse should monitor for signs such as dry mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor, hypotension, and concentrated urine output.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. Hyperglycemia
Mannitol is not known to significantly raise blood glucose levels; this effect is more commonly associated with corticosteroids.
C. Tinnitus
Tinnitus is typically associated with ototoxic drugs like aminoglycosides, not mannitol.
D. Friction rub
A friction rub is a sign of pericarditis or pleuritis and is unrelated to mannitol therapy.
A nurse manager on a medical-surgical unit is auditing the use of client care resources. Which of the following actions should the nurse manager implement as a strategy to provide cost-effective care
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Make telemetry monitoring a part of standardized client care.
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Schedule additional nursing staff to clean equipment.
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Instruct nurses to repeat blood glucose tests for verification.
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Estimate the length of hospitalization for clients.
Explanation
Correct Answer D. Estimate the length of hospitalization for clients.
Explanation
Estimating the expected length of stay allows for effective care planning, discharge preparation, and resource management, which supports cost-effective care. This strategy promotes timely interventions, reduces unnecessary delays, and helps avoid prolonged hospitalizations that can increase costs.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. Make telemetry monitoring a part of standardized client care
Telemetry should be used only when clinically indicated, as routine use for all patients can lead to unnecessary costs and overuse of monitoring equipment.
B. Schedule additional nursing staff to clean equipment
This increases labor costs and is not a nursing responsibility. Cleaning equipment should be handled by designated support staff, not by increasing nursing workload.
C. Instruct nurses to repeat blood glucose tests for verification
Unnecessary repeat testing can lead to waste of supplies and time unless clinically warranted. Cost-effective care involves minimizing redundant procedures.
A nurse observes another nurse frequently removing narcotics from a client's medication drawer and disappearing several times throughout a shift. Which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Ask the client if she is receiving her pain medication.
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Assume care of the nurse's clients.
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Report the nurse's behavior to a charge nurse.
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Confront the nurse about the situation.
Explanation
Correct Answer C. Report the nurse's behavior to a charge nurse.
Explanation
When suspecting drug diversion or impairment, the observing nurse must follow the chain of command and report the suspicious behavior immediately to the charge nurse or nurse manager. This ensures that the situation is addressed appropriately, maintains patient safety, and allows for timely investigation and intervention according to facility policy and regulatory standards.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. Ask the client if she is receiving her pain medication
This may provide some insight but does not address the potential safety and legal concern. It also may not stop further misuse or protect other patients.
B. Assume care of the nurse's clients
Taking over care does not solve the root issue or ensure proper documentation and accountability. It also avoids required reporting protocols.
D. Confront the nurse about the situation
Direct confrontation is inappropriate and unsafe in this situation. It may escalate the issue or lead to defensiveness or concealment without resolution.
A nurse is assisting a licensed practical nurse (LPN) to plan care for several clients. The nurse is unsure which tasks are within the scope of practice for an LPN. Which of the following resources should the nurse consult for clarification
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The American Nurses Association
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The State Board of Nursing
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The Accreditation Commission for Education in Nursing
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The National Council of State Boards of Nursing
Explanation
Correct Answer B. The State Board of Nursing
Explanation
Each State Board of Nursing (BON) defines the legal scope of practice for LPNs, RNs, and APRNs within that state. Because nurse practice acts vary by state, the BON is the most authoritative and legally binding resource for determining what tasks an LPN can or cannot perform in that particular state.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. The American Nurses Association (ANA)
The ANA provides standards and guidelines for professional nursing practice, mostly for registered nurses, but it does not define LPN scope of practice.
C. The Accreditation Commission for Education in Nursing (ACEN)
The ACEN is responsible for accrediting nursing education programs, not for setting practice standards or scopes of practice.
D. The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN)
While the NCSBN supports state boards and developed the NCLEX, it does not define individual state practice acts. The correct and legal scope is determined by the State Board of Nursing.
A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has increased intracranial pressure (ICP) from a traumatic brain injury and is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan
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Position the client to maintain hip flexion.
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Administer an enema if the client develops constipation.
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Provide 100% oxygen to the client prior to suctioning.
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Ensure that the PEEP level is set at 20 cm of H2O.
Explanation
Correct Answer C. Provide 100% oxygen to the client prior to suctioning.
Explanation
Pre-oxygenating with 100% oxygen before suctioning is essential to prevent hypoxia, which can increase ICP. Hypoxia causes cerebral vasodilation, further raising intracranial pressure. This step is a standard precaution in clients with elevated ICP.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. Position the client to maintain hip flexion.
Hip flexion increases intra-abdominal and thoracic pressure, which can impair venous return from the brain and raise ICP. The hips should be kept in a neutral or slightly extended position.
B. Administer an enema if the client develops constipation.
Enemas can increase intrathoracic pressure through straining and bearing down (Valsalva maneuver), which may elevate ICP. Stool softeners are safer alternatives.
D. Ensure that the PEEP level is set at 20 cm of H2O.
A PEEP of 20 cm H₂O is too high and can impair venous return from the brain, increasing ICP. Lower PEEP settings are typically preferred in clients with elevated ICP unless required for oxygenation.
An employee health nurse is teaching a newly hired nurse about the protocol for having hepatitis B vaccine available for administration to employees. Which of the following requires the availability of this vaccine for employees
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Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996
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Occupational Safety and Health Administration
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Professional standards review organization
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Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Law
Explanation
Correct Answer B. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
Explanation
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) mandates that employers provide the hepatitis B vaccine to employees who are at risk for exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials (such as nurses, lab techs, and other healthcare workers). This requirement is part of the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, which aims to protect healthcare workers from infections.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
A. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)
HIPAA governs privacy and security of health information, not vaccination requirements or workplace safety protocols.
C. Professional standards review organization (PSRO)
PSROs are concerned with quality assurance and cost-effectiveness in healthcare delivery, not occupational health policies or vaccine protocols.
D. Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Law (EMTALA)
EMTALA ensures emergency medical treatment is provided regardless of ability to pay, and does not relate to employee vaccination requirements.
A nurse is participating on a quality improvement committee to develop a plan to reduce medication errors at the facility. After formulating a proposed change in medication administration practice, which of the following steps should the committee take next
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Review the proposed change against current medication administration guidelines
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Evaluate the results of the change in medication administration practice
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Develop a plan to analyze the data for the new administration practice
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Implement the proposed change in the facility's medication administration guidelines
Explanation
Correct Answer A. Review the proposed change against current medication administration guidelines
Explanation
After formulating a proposed change, the committee should review it against current medication administration guidelines and standards of practice to ensure it is evidence-based, safe, and aligns with regulatory and professional requirements. This validation step is essential before moving forward with implementation or data analysis.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
B. Evaluate the results of the change in medication administration practice
Evaluation happens after the change has been implemented and data have been collected. It is not the immediate next step after developing the proposal.
C. Develop a plan to analyze the data for the new administration practice
While planning for data analysis is important, it comes after confirming the proposal’s alignment with standards and before implementation.
D. Implement the proposed change in the facility's medication administration guidelines
Implementation should only occur after thoroughly reviewing the proposal against guidelines and preparing for monitoring and evaluation.
A nurse manager is informed that a staff nurse has arrived for work chemically impaired. Which of the following actions is part of the responsibility of the nurse manager
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Confront the nurse with an explanation of performance expectations.
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Participate in the nurse's recovery process by providing direct care.
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Plan to conduct a counseling session with the nurse on the following morning.
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Determine why the nurse is using the chemically-impairing substance.
Explanation
Correct Answer A. Confront the nurse with an explanation of performance expectations.
Explanation
The nurse manager has a legal and ethical responsibility to address impairment in the workplace immediately and directly. Confronting the nurse with professionalism while explaining performance expectations and safety concerns is appropriate. The priority is ensuring client safety, removing the impaired nurse from duty, and initiating reporting protocols as required by policy and regulatory bodies.
Why Other Options Are Wrong
B. Participate in the nurse's recovery process by providing direct care
The nurse manager’s role is administrative and supervisory, not clinical in this context. They should refer the nurse to appropriate assistance, not provide direct care.
C. Plan to conduct a counseling session with the nurse on the following morning
Delaying action poses a risk to client safety. The nurse manager must act immediately, not wait until the next day.
D. Determine why the nurse is using the chemically-impairing substance
Investigating personal motives is not within the immediate responsibilities of the nurse manager. The focus should be on ensuring safety and following reporting and referral procedures.
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