ATI PN 112 Final Exam 12/25
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Free ATI PN 112 Final Exam 12/25 Questions
A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hr postpartum. The nurse finds a small amount of lochia rubra on the client’s perineal pad. The fundus is midline and firm at the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Assist the client to ambulate.
- B. Perform fundal massage.
- C. Check for blood under the client’s buttock.
- D. Increase the rate of the IV fluids.
Explanation
Explanation
Although a small amount of lochia rubra and a firm, midline fundus are expected findings 4 hours postpartum, bleeding may still be concealed beneath the client, especially if she has been lying in bed. The nurse should first assess for hidden blood pooling under the buttocks or bedding to ensure there is no unrecognized postpartum hemorrhage. Fundal massage and increasing IV fluids are indicated only if excessive bleeding or uterine atony is present, which is not currently indicated.Correct Answer Is:
C. Check for blood under the client’s buttock.A nurse is teaching a class to new staff members about the importance of a positive work environment. Which of the following could be used as an example of professional comportment?
- A. Completing all care tasks before the end of the shift
- B. Postponing documentation in the medical record
- C. Staff members socializing at the nurse’s station
- D. Collaboration among staff to complete tasks
Explanation
Explanation
Professional comportment refers to behaviors that promote respect, teamwork, and high-quality client care. Collaboration among staff demonstrates professionalism by fostering effective communication, shared responsibility, and mutual support. This approach enhances efficiency, reduces errors, and contributes to a positive work environment. Socializing at the nurse’s station and delaying documentation are unprofessional behaviors, and simply completing tasks does not fully reflect professional interaction.Correct Answer Is:
D. Collaboration among staff to complete tasksA nurse is caring for a client who asks why she is being prescribed aspirin 325 mg daily following a myocardial infarction. The nurse should instruct the client that aspirin is prescribed for clients who have coronary artery disease for which of the following effects?
- A. To prevent fever
- B. To reduce inflammation
- C. To provide analgesia
- D. To prevent blood clotting
Explanation
Explanation
Aspirin is prescribed after a myocardial infarction for its antiplatelet effects. It inhibits platelet aggregation, which helps prevent the formation of blood clots within the coronary arteries. By reducing the risk of clot formation, aspirin lowers the chance of recurrent myocardial infarction and improves blood flow to the heart muscle, making it a key medication in the management of coronary artery disease.Correct Answer Is:
D. To prevent blood clottingA nurse is receiving report about assigned clients at the start of his shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to attend to first?
- A. A client who experienced a vaginal birth 24 hr ago and reports no bleeding
- B. A client who has preeclampsia and a BP of 138/90 mm Hg
- C. A client who is scheduled for discharge in 2 hr following a laparoscopic tubal ligation
- D. A client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hr ago and reports pain
Explanation
Explanation
The client who is 4 hours postoperative following a cesarean birth requires priority attention because early postoperative pain can indicate inadequate pain control or potential complications such as hemorrhage or infection. Prompt assessment and intervention are necessary to promote comfort, support recovery, and identify complications early. The other clients are stable, have non-urgent findings, or can safely be addressed after the immediate postoperative client.Correct Answer Is:
D. A client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hr ago and reports painA nurse working in a long-term care facility is assigned care of four clients following the 0700 morning change-of-shift report. Which of the following clients should the nurse attend to first?
- A. A client who has bronchitis, began receiving antibiotics yesterday, and has a temperature of 38.3° C (101° F)
- B. A client who has COPD and has an oxygen saturation of 90%
- C. A client who has Alzheimer’s disease and was restless during the night
- D. A client who has diabetes and had a 0600 blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL
Explanation
Explanation
A blood glucose level of 60 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, which is an acute and potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Untreated hypoglycemia can rapidly progress to confusion, loss of consciousness, seizures, or coma. Using the ABCs and acute-versus-chronic priority framework, hypoglycemia represents the most urgent problem. The other clients have stable or expected findings that can be addressed after the immediate blood glucose abnormality is treated.Correct Answer Is:
D. A client who has diabetes and had a 0600 blood glucose level of 60 mg/dLA nurse is preparing to exit the room of a client who has a draining wound that contains methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and requires contact precautions. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow to remove personal protective equipment (PPE) after caring for this client.
Steps:
- Remove the gown.
- Remove the gloves.
- Remove the eyewear.
- Remove the mask.
Which of the following shows the correct order of performance?
- A. 2 → 1 → 3 → 4
- B. 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
- C. 2 → 3 → 1 → 4
- D. 3 → 2 → 1 → 4
Explanation
Explanation
Gloves are removed first because they are the most heavily contaminated. The gown is removed next since it may also carry organisms from contact with the client or environment. Eyewear is removed after protective clothing, as it is less contaminated. The mask is removed last to prevent exposure to airborne particles while removing other PPE.Correct Answer Is:
A. 2 → 1 → 3 → 4A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is pregnant and has a prescription for Rho(D) immune globulin. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. This medication prevents the formation of Rh antibodies by a woman who is Rh-negative.
- B. This medication prevents the formation of Rh antibodies in a newborn who is Rh-positive.
- C. This medication destroys Rh antibodies in a newborn who is Rh-positive.
- D. This medication destroys Rh antibodies in a woman who is Rh-negative.
Explanation
Explanation
Rho(D) immune globulin is administered to Rh-negative women to prevent sensitization to Rh-positive fetal red blood cells. The medication works by preventing the mother’s immune system from forming Rh antibodies that could attack Rh-positive red blood cells in a current or future pregnancy. It does not destroy existing antibodies and does not act on the newborn; its protective effect is directed at the maternal immune response.Correct Answer Is:
A. This medication prevents the formation of Rh antibodies by a woman who is Rh-negative.A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching on actions that improve gas exchange to a client diagnosed with emphysema. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching?
- A. Consume a low-protein diet.
- B. Limit fluid intake throughout the day.
- C. Rest in a supine position.
- D. Breathe in through her nose and out through pursed lips.
Explanation
Explanation
Pursed-lip breathing is a key technique for clients with emphysema to improve gas exchange. Breathing in through the nose and slowly exhaling through pursed lips helps prolong exhalation, prevent airway collapse, reduce air trapping, and improve oxygenation. This method also decreases shortness of breath and the work of breathing, especially during activity. The other options do not support effective ventilation or may worsen respiratory status.Correct Answer Is:
D. Breathe in through her nose and out through pursed lips.A nurse is preparing to administer scheduled immunizations to a 5-year-old child. Which of the following vaccines should the nurse plan to administer?
- A. Haemophilus influenza type b (Hib)
- B. Hepatitis B (Hep B)
- C. Varicella (VAR)
- D. Meningococcal (MCV4)
Explanation
Explanation
The varicella vaccine is routinely administered in two doses, with the first dose given at 12–15 months and the second (booster) dose given at 4–6 years of age. A 5-year-old child is within the recommended age range for the second varicella immunization. Hib and Hepatitis B vaccines are typically completed during infancy, and the meningococcal vaccine (MCV4) is routinely given starting at 11–12 years of age, unless specific risk factors are present.Correct Answer Is:
C. Varicella (VAR)A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the heart and great vessels. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include about this test?
- A. “You will need to lie flat for 6 hours following this test.”
- B. “You will need to withhold food and fluids for 4 hours before this test.”
- C. “You will need to increase your fluid intake after this test.”
- D. “You will need to remove metal objects such as jewelry.”
Explanation
Explanation
MRI uses a powerful magnetic field to create detailed images of internal structures. Metal objects can be attracted to the magnet, posing a serious safety risk and interfering with image quality. Clients must remove all metal items, including jewelry, watches, hairpins, and removable dental work, before the procedure. Fasting, increased fluids, and prolonged positioning afterward are not routinely required for an MRI.Correct Answer Is:
D. “You will need to remove metal objects such as jewelry.”How to Order
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