Health Assessment Denver School of Nursing
Health Assessment Exam – Denver School of Nursing Practice Questions With Answers
Get exam-ready with ULOSCA’s comprehensive Health Assessment practice questions. This guide is designed for Denver School of Nursing students and aligned with key physical assessment competencies.
Everything you need to assess with confidence:
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Covers full-body systems review including skin, HEENT, neurological, and musculoskeletal assessments
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Features high-yield clinical scenarios on otitis media, migraines, pressure injuries, cranial nerves, and vision changes
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Emphasizes diagnostic reasoning, symptom interpretation, and documentation accuracy
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Directly aligned with BSN-level health assessment course objectives and NCLEX readiness
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Free Health Assessment Denver School of Nursing Questions
The nurse is interviewing a 60-year-old client who presents with difficulty breathing. The client reports smoking 1 pack of cigarettes per day since the age of 28. How should the nurse document the client's smoking history
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28 pack years
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168 pack years
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32 pack years
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60 packs per day
Explanation
Correct Answer C: 32 pack years
Explanation:
Pack years are calculated using the formula:
Number of packs per day × Number of years smoked
This client smoked 1 pack/day from age 28 to 60, which is 32 years.
So, 1 pack/day × 32 years = 32 pack years
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) 28 pack years:
This reflects years since starting, not the actual number of years smoked.
B) 168 pack years:
Likely a result of multiplying years by something other than the number of packs per day (incorrect math).
D) 60 packs per day:
This misinterprets the question. The client smokes 1 pack/day, not 60. This is not a valid way to document smoking history.
The nurse palpates a thrill over the client's precordium during a cardiac assessment. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take
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Attempt to relieve the thrill by palpating the area more firmly to assess for changes.
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Document the thrill as a normal finding and continue with the assessment
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Ignore the finding if the client is not experiencing any pain or discomfort.
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Report the thrill to the healthcare provider as it indicates turbulent blood flow.
Explanation
Correct Answer D: Report the thrill to the healthcare provider as it indicates turbulent blood flow.
Explanation:
A thrill is a palpable vibration over the precordium and is never a normal finding. It usually indicates turbulent blood flow, often associated with murmurs due to valvular defects or other cardiac abnormalities. The nurse should report it to the healthcare provider for further evaluation.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Attempt to relieve the thrill by palpating more firmly:
This is inappropriate. A thrill is a clinical finding—not something to "relieve" by palpation.
B) Document as a normal finding:
A thrill is not normal and should not be documented as such.
C) Ignore the finding if no pain is present:
Even if the client has no pain, a thrill still indicates an underlying issue that requires attention.
The nurse is assessing a client's carotid arteries. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure a safe and accurate assessment of the carotid arteries
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Auscultate the carotid artery to assess the pulse rate more accurately.
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Palpate both carotid arteries simultaneously to check for symmetry.
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Auscultate for bruits using the bell of the stethoscope.
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Palpate the carotid arteries while the client is lying flat in bed.
Explanation
Correct Answer C: Auscultate for bruits using the bell of the stethoscope.
Explanation:
When assessing the carotid arteries, the nurse should auscultate for bruits—which are abnormal "whooshing" sounds indicating turbulent blood flow from narrowing or plaque buildup. The bell of the stethoscope is used because bruits are low-pitched sounds.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Auscultate to assess pulse rate:
Pulse rate should be assessed by palpation, not auscultation of the carotid artery.
B) Palpate both carotid arteries simultaneously:
This is unsafe and can reduce blood flow to the brain, risking syncope (fainting).
D) Palpate while client is lying flat in bed:
The client should be in a sitting or slightly elevated position to properly assess the carotids and reduce risk of obstructing airflow or circulation.
A nurse is assessing a client who reports experiencing recurrent headaches that are often accompanied by nausea, sensitivity to light, and visual disturbances. The client mentions that these headaches usually last for several hours and are typically one-sided. Based on these symptoms, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis
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Sinus headache
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Tension headache
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Cluster headache
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Migraine headache
Explanation
Correct Answer D: Migraine headache
Explanation:
D) Migraine headache: Migraines are commonly characterized by:
Unilateral (one-sided) pain
Throbbing or pulsating quality
Moderate to severe intensity
Duration of several hours to days
Associated symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, photophobia (light sensitivity), phonophobia (sound sensitivity), and visual disturbances (auras)
This client’s report of nausea, light sensitivity, visual disturbances, and one-sided pain lasting several hours strongly aligns with migraine.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Sinus headache:
Typically accompanied by facial pain, nasal congestion, and pressure around the eyes and cheeks. Sinus headaches are usually bilateral and related to sinus infections.
B) Tension headache:
Characterized by bilateral, dull, aching pressure or tightness around the head or neck. They are not typically associated with nausea or visual changes.
C) Cluster headache:
These are very severe, unilateral headaches that occur in clusters (multiple times a day) over weeks. They often cause tearing, nasal congestion, and restlessness, but not usually nausea or visual auras.
The nurse is assessing a client during their physical exam. Which of the following is the most appropriate action when auscultating the thyroid
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Auscultate with the diaphragm of the stethoscope for high-pitched sounds.
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Use the bell of the stethoscope to listen for any abnormal sounds, such as a bruit
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Assess the client's vital signs for changes in blood flow to the thyroid.
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Palpate the trachea to determine whether it is midline.
Explanation
Correct Answer B: Use the bell of the stethoscope to listen for any abnormal sounds, such as a bruit.
Explanation:
B) Use the bell of the stethoscope to listen for any abnormal sounds, such as a bruit: This is the correct technique. A bruit is a low-pitched, whooshing sound caused by turbulent blood flow and may indicate increased vascularity of the thyroid, often seen in hyperthyroidism (e.g., Graves' disease). The bell is best for detecting low-pitched vascular sounds over the thyroid gland.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Auscultate with the diaphragm of the stethoscope for high-pitched sounds:
The diaphragm is used for high-pitched sounds like breath or bowel sounds, not vascular bruits, which are low-pitched and better detected with the bell.
C) Assess the client's vital signs for changes in blood flow to the thyroid:
Vital signs provide systemic information, not localized vascular findings in the thyroid. Auscultation is necessary to detect a bruit.
D) Palpate the trachea to determine whether it is midline:
This assesses tracheal position, not thyroid blood flow. It is important in the overall neck assessment, but it does not substitute for auscultation when evaluating thyroid vascular sounds.
The nurse notes the following data from the head-to-toe examination of a client: 2+ pedal pulse, full sensation, and color changes in a client’s right leg (see photo). Based on this data, the nurse suspects
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Dependent rubor
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Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD)
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Diabetic neuropathy
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Chronic venous insufficiency
Explanation
Correct Answer D: Chronic venous insufficiency
Explanation:
The image shows brownish discoloration around the ankle and lower leg, consistent with hemosiderin staining, which is a classic sign of chronic venous insufficiency. This occurs when veins in the lower legs are unable to efficiently return blood to the heart, leading to pooling of blood, edema, and skin changes. The presence of a 2+ pedal pulse and intact sensation further supports a venous issue rather than arterial or neurologic.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Dependent rubor:
This is a red-purple discoloration that appears when the leg is in a dependent position due to arterial insufficiency, not the chronic brown staining seen here.
B) Peripheral Arterial Disease (PAD):
PAD often presents with diminished or absent pulses, cool skin, pallor, and possibly pain with walking (claudication)—not with the discoloration shown in the photo.
C) Diabetic neuropathy:
This primarily affects sensation and may lead to foot ulcers due to loss of protective feeling, but it does not cause the discoloration evident in the image.
While performing a head-to-toe physical exam on a client the nurse tests CN X (cranial nerve 10). The cranial nerve was intact and the nurse would document it as
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Facial movements are voluntary and symmetrical.
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Tongue is midline with no deviation.
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Uvula and soft palate move upwards and midline.
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Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles are strong and equal.
Explanation
Correct Answer C: Uvula and soft palate move upwards and midline
Explanation:
Cranial Nerve X (Vagus nerve) is responsible for motor function of the soft palate, pharynx, and larynx. When assessing CN X, the nurse asks the client to say “ahh” while observing the movement of the uvula and soft palate. A normal response is for the uvula and soft palate to rise symmetrically and remain midline, which indicates that CN X is intact.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Facial movements are voluntary and symmetrical:
This assesses Cranial Nerve VII (Facial nerve), which controls facial expression muscles, not CN X.
B) Tongue is midline with no deviation:
This finding is related to Cranial Nerve XII (Hypoglossal nerve), which controls tongue movement, not the vagus nerve.
D) Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles are strong and equal:
This tests Cranial Nerve XI (Spinal Accessory nerve), which controls those specific muscles, not CN X.
The nurse is listening to heart sounds during a physical assessment. When is a split S1 most likely to be heard
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Directly after S2, when the pulmonic and aortic valves close
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Right after S2, when the left ventricle and right atrium relax
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Right after S1, when the mitral and tricuspid valves close
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Right before S1, when the pulmonic and aortic valves close
Explanation
Correct Answer C: Right after S1, when the mitral and tricuspid valves close
Explanation:
S1 is caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves at the beginning of ventricular systole. A split S1 occurs when these two valves close at slightly different times, often due to a delay in the closure of the tricuspid valve. It is heard right after the first heart sound (S1) and is best auscultated at the lower left sternal border.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Directly after S2, when the pulmonic and aortic valves close:
This timing refers to S2, not S1. A split S2 may occur with delayed pulmonic valve closure.
B) Right after S2, when the left ventricle and right atrium relax:
This describes diastole, not related to S1 splitting.
D) Right before S1, when the pulmonic and aortic valves close:
This is also part of diastole and not associated with S1 or its splitting.
A nurse is assessing an elderly client who reports experiencing a blind spot in the center of their vision. Which condition is most likely present
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Macular degeneration
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Glaucoma
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Diabetic retinopathy
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Cataracts
Explanation
Correct Answer A: Macular degeneration
Explanation:
A) Macular degeneration affects the macula, the central portion of the retina responsible for sharp, central vision. In age-related macular degeneration (AMD), clients often report a central blind spot, blurring, or distortion, especially when reading or focusing on fine details. Peripheral vision typically remains intact.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B) Glaucoma:
Glaucoma damages the optic nerve, often leading to peripheral vision loss first. It typically does not cause central blind spots until the disease is advanced.
C) Diabetic retinopathy:
This condition causes patchy or fluctuating vision, blurred vision, or floaters, but it does not typically present with a single central blind spot early on.
D) Cataracts:
Cataracts cause generalized blurring, glare, and cloudy vision, but not a distinct blind spot. The lens becomes opaque, leading to overall vision reduction rather than localized loss.
During a respiratory assessment, the nurse notes that the client's anterior-posterior (AP) diameter is nearly equal to the transverse diameter (1:1 ratio). Which of the following conditions is most associated with this finding
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Acute asthma attack
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Pleural effusion
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Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
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Pneumonia
Explanation
Correct Answer C: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Explanation:
A 1:1 AP-to-transverse diameter, commonly referred to as a "barrel chest," is most often associated with COPD, particularly emphysema. This occurs due to chronic overinflation of the lungs, which changes the chest wall shape over time. It is a key physical sign of chronic respiratory compromise.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Acute asthma attack:
May cause short-term respiratory distress and use of accessory muscles, but not a long-term change in chest shape.
B) Pleural effusion:
Involves fluid in the pleural space, often causing asymmetrical chest movement, not a barrel chest appearance.
D) Pneumonia:
An acute infection causing localized crackles or consolidation, but it does not alter chest diameter.
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Health Assessment – Denver School of Nursing Online Practice Exam Summary
1. Introduction
The Health Assessment Online Practice Exam supports nursing students at the Denver School of Nursing in mastering the clinical skills essential for comprehensive patient evaluations. This guide emphasizes systematic head-to-toe assessments, accurate documentation, and early recognition of abnormal findings. With a strong foundation in anatomy, physiology, and communication, students will strengthen their ability to collect and interpret physical and subjective data across all age groups and health conditions.
2. Foundational Assessment Skills and Clinical Application
This section reinforces core competencies in physical assessment and links them to real-world clinical practice. Case-based questions reflect typical health concerns encountered in primary care and acute settings.
Key concepts include:
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Differentiating ear pathologies like otitis media vs. otitis externa
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Identifying headache types through symptom analysis (e.g., migraine vs. tension headache)
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Recognizing pressure injury stages and skin abnormalities
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Understanding normal vs. abnormal tongue, scalp, and cranial nerve findings
Through repetitive exposure to clinical scenarios, students gain confidence in physical inspection, palpation, percussion, and auscultation techniques.
3. Interpreting Signs and Symptoms in Diverse Populations
Nurses must be skilled at recognizing health alterations that vary by age, comorbidities, and functional status. This section uses patient vignettes to teach prioritization and diagnostic reasoning.
Topics include:
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Identifying macular degeneration based on central vision loss
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Assessing skin cancer risks using ABCDE criteria for melanoma
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Performing full cranial nerve examinations and documenting normal findings
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Evaluating high-risk sites for pressure injuries in immobile or wheelchair-bound clients
Each question is aligned with assessment protocols and nursing care priorities for early intervention and safe outcomes.
4. Integrating Health Assessment with Patient Safety
This final section connects assessment findings with patient-centered nursing interventions. It emphasizes the nurse’s role in preventing complications and escalating concerns appropriately.
Students will learn to:
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Distinguish allergic vs. infectious rhinitis using nasal exam clues
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Recognize age-related changes like decreased taste and salivary output
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Monitor for common skin, oral, and respiratory issues in elderly clients
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Apply critical thinking when assessing mobility-impaired individuals
By completing this practice exam, students will enhance their clinical judgment, improve accuracy in documentation, and meet the expectations of comprehensive health assessments in modern nursing practice.