ATI NUR 213 Midpoint Assessment FA II 2025 Assessment I

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Free ATI NUR 213 Midpoint Assessment FA II 2025 Assessment I Questions

1.

A nurse assessing a client determines that he is in the compensatory stage of shock.
Which of the following findings support this conclusion?

  • Anuria​
  • Petechiae​
  • Confusion​
  • Blood pressure 84/50 mm Hg

Explanation

Explanation
Explanation of Correct Answer (C):
In the compensatory stage of shock, the body activates mechanisms to maintain perfusion to
vital organs. One key sign is altered mental status, including confusion, restlessness, or anxiety,
caused by decreased cerebral perfusion. The blood pressure often remains within normal or
2.

The nurse is assessing a patient with peritonitis. What findings should they expect?​
(Select ALL that apply)

  • Decreased urinary output​
  • Inability to pass stool​
  • Rigid abdomen​
  • Hyperactive bowel sounds​
  • Frequent bowel movements

Explanation

Explanation
A. Decreased urinary output​
Peritonitis causes significant inflammation and fluid shifts into the peritoneal cavity. As fluid
moves out of the vascular space, blood pressure may decrease and kidney perfusion becomes
impaired. This leads to oliguria (reduced urine output), which is a serious sign of declining
circulation. The nurse should closely monitor intake and output and assess for signs of
dehydration or hypovolemic shock. B. Inability to pass stool​
A common complication of peritonitis is paralytic ileus, a temporary shutdown of intestinal
motility. The intestines stop moving, leading to an inability to pass stool or gas. This is a key
assessment finding and indicates serious abdominal inflammation. The abdomen may feel
distended, and bowel sounds may be absent or hypoactive.
C. Rigid abdomen​
A rigid or “board-like” abdomen is a classic hallmark of peritonitis and indicates severe
irritation of the peritoneum. This rigidity is caused by involuntary muscle guarding due to
extreme pain and inflammation. This finding is an emergency and suggests worsening infection
or possible progression to sepsis. The nurse must notify the provider immediately and anticipate
diagnostic testing and IV antibiotics.
3.

A nurse is teaching a client who has tuberculosis and is to start medication therapy with
isoniazid, rifampin and pyrazinamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse
include?

  • "Drink at least 8 ounces of water when you take the pyrazinamide tablet."​
  • "Take isoniazid with an antacid."​
  • "Provide a sputum specimen every 2 weeks to the clinic for testing."​
  • "Expect your sputum cultures to be negative after 6 months of therapy."

Explanation

Explanation
Explanation of Correct Answer (A):
Pyrazinamide can cause hyperuricemia and hepatotoxicity, so adequate fluid intake is essential
to help prevent gout and promote renal excretion of uric acid. Patients should take the medication
with a full glass of water and report any joint pain or swelling. Monitoring liver function is also
important during therapy.
4.

The nurse is caring for a patient with an acute ulcerative colitis flare-up. The provider
wants to start the patient on medication. Which medications are appropriate for use in
ulcerative colitis?​
(Select ALL that apply)

  • Aspirin​
  • Ciprofloxacin​
  • Sumatriptan​
  • Ibuprofen​
  • Golimumab​
  • Methylprednisolone

Explanation

Explanation
B. Ciprofloxacin​
Antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin may be prescribed during severe flare-ups of ulcerative colitis
when there is concern for secondary infection. Although not used routinely, it may be used when
complications such as abscess or infection are suspected.
E. Golimumab​
Golimumab is a biologic (TNF inhibitor) approved for use in moderate to severe ulcerative
colitis. It reduces inflammation by suppressing immune responses and is often used when other
medications fail to control symptoms effectively.
F. Methylprednisolone
Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone are used during acute flare-ups to rapidly decrease
inflammation. They are not used long-term but are appropriate for induction therapy to control
severe symptoms and promote remission.
5.

A nurse is caring for a client who has burns to approximately 50% of their body. Which of the
following physiological changes related to the burns should the nurse anticipate? Select all that
apply.

  • Hypermagnesemia​
  • Loss of protein​
  • Diuresis​
  • Decreased plasma volume​
  • Capillary leak

Explanation

Explanation
B. Loss of protein​
Burns, especially when covering a significant portion of the body, cause extensive damage to the
skin and underlying tissues. This damage leads to the loss of proteins such as albumin and
globulins, which normally help maintain the balance of fluids within the blood vessels. As
protein is lost through the burn wounds, this can result in hypoalbuminemia, which contributes
to edema and worsens fluid shifts between the intracellular, intravascular, and interstitial spaces.
The body’s inability to retain enough protein increases the risk of hypovolemic shock and
delayed wound healing.
C. Diuresis​
Following the initial phase of burn injury, the body undergoes a hypermetabolic state and
experiences fluid shifts. The kidneys respond to these fluid shifts by increasing urine output,
known as diuresis, as part of the body’s compensatory mechanisms. This process is essential for
eliminating excess fluid that accumulates during the acute phase of burns. Diuresis is also
influenced by fluid resuscitation therapy (e.g., using fluids like lactated Ringer's solution),
which temporarily expands the extracellular volume. However, excessive diuresis can lead to
electrolyte imbalances and dehydration if not carefully monitored.
D. Decreased plasma volume​
In the initial stage of a severe burn injury, there is a dramatic decrease in plasma volume due to
the capillary leak syndrome. Burn-induced injury to the endothelial cells of blood vessels causes
them to become more permeable, allowing fluid, proteins, and electrolytes to leak from the
vascular system into the interstitial and intracellular spaces. This causes a reduction in the
circulating blood volume, contributing to hypovolemia. This reduction in plasma volume can
result in shock and requires immediate and aggressive fluid resuscitation to restore normal blood
volume and blood pressure.
E. Capillary leak
One of the most significant consequences of severe burns is the capillary leak syndrome, where
the permeability of blood vessels increases significantly due to the inflammatory response
triggered by the burn injury. The affected blood vessels lose their ability to maintain a selective
barrier, allowing fluid and proteins (including albumin) to leak out of the vessels and
accumulate in the interstitial spaces. This leads to edema, and in some cases, shock if the fluid
6.

A nurse is interviewing a pre-operative patient scheduled for a total nephrolithotomy. Which
of the following findings would require the nurse to collaborate with the surgeon immediately
before sending the patient to the operating room?

  • The client took phenytoin 100 mg with a sip of water at 5 a.m.​
  • The client took metoprolol 25 mg with a sip of water at 6 a.m.​
  • The client took warfarin 2.5 mg with a sip of water at 6 a.m.​
  • The client took half their morning dose of insulin at 6 a.m.

Explanation

Explanation
Warfarin is a potent anticoagulant that significantly increases the risk of excessive bleeding
during surgery. Taking warfarin on the day of a surgical procedure, such as a nephrolithotomy,
can compromise hemostasis and lead to complications including intraoperative hemorrhage,
need for transfusion, or delayed wound healing. Immediate collaboration with the surgeon is
necessary to determine whether to delay the surgery, reverse the anticoagulation, or adjust
perioperative management. The nurse must communicate this finding promptly to prevent
life-threatening complications and ensure patient safety.
7.

A nurse is caring for a client with the diagnosis of Clostridium difficile. While providing care
to the client, the nurse’s glove tears. After removing the soiled gloves, what is the priority action
by the nurse?

  • Wash hands with soap and water​
  • Don a clean pair of nonsterile gloves​
  • Wash hands with a biohazard wipe from a nearby container​
  • Wash hands with alcohol-based hand sanitizer

Explanation

Explanation
Clostridium difficile is a spore-forming bacterium that is not reliably killed by alcohol-based
hand sanitizers. When a glove tears, the nurse’s hands may be contaminated. The priority action
is to wash hands thoroughly with soap and water, which mechanically removes spores and
reduces the risk of transmission to other patients or surfaces. After washing, the nurse should
don a clean pair of nonsterile gloves before continuing care. This sequence ensures proper
infection control and patient safety.
8.

A nurse is caring for a client who has HIV-1 infection and is prescribed zidovudine as
part of antiretroviral therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the
following adverse effects of this medication?

  • Cardiac dysrhythmia​
  • Metabolic alkalosis​
  • Aplastic anemia​
  • Renal failure

Explanation

Explanation
Explanation of Correct Answer (C):​
Zidovudine is known to cause bone marrow suppression, which can lead to aplastic anemia,
neutropenia, and anemia. The nurse must monitor CBC values, especially hemoglobin,
hematocrit, and WBC counts, to detect any signs of myelosuppression. Early identification is
9.

A client is admitted with the diagnosis of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. Which
nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?

  • Activity intolerance​
  • Impaired oral mucous membranes​
  • Impaired gas exchange​
  • Imbalanced nutrition, less than body requirements

Explanation

Explanation
Explanation of Correct Answer (C):​
Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia affects the lungs and significantly compromises oxygenation.
According to the ABC priority framework (Airway, Breathing, Circulation), impaired gas
exchange is the most urgent concern because it directly affects breathing. Without adequate
oxygenation, the client is at risk for respiratory failure, hypoxia, and even death. Therefore, this
diagnosis is the highest priority.
10.

You are caring for a patient post-op after bariatric surgery. Complete the sentence using the
drop-down choices. The nurse knows that the patient needs to ambulate post-op for several
reasons.

This can help the patient —-------as well as help prevent —-------and —--------.

  • Heal … Jaundice … Drowsiness​
  • Expel gas … Constipation … Incontinence​
  • Improve mood … Jaundice … Constipation​
  • Increase weight … Drowsiness … Incontinence

Explanation

Explanation
Postoperative ambulation after bariatric surgery helps expel gas from the gastrointestinal tract,
which relieves discomfort and promotes normal bowel function. Ambulation also stimulates
bowel motility, helping prevent constipation, a common post-op complication. Additionally,
early mobilization reduces the risk of urinary incontinence and other complications associated
with prolonged immobility, supporting overall recovery and improving circulation.

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