Family Nurse Practitioner Clinical Internship III (D124)
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Free Family Nurse Practitioner Clinical Internship III (D124) Questions
An older adult patient is diagnosed with HIV infection and receives a prescription for zidovudine (Retrovir). Which diagnostic test helps assess the side effects of the medication
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Complete blood count.
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Hemoglobin A1C.
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Immunodeficiency panel.
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Serum glucose.
Explanation
Correct answer:
A. Complete blood count.
Explanation:
Zidovudine (Retrovir) is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) used in the treatment of HIV. One of the common side effects of zidovudine is bone marrow suppression, which can lead to anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. A complete blood count (CBC) is used to monitor for these hematologic side effects, as it provides valuable information about red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. Regular monitoring of the CBC is essential to identify any abnormalities that could result from the medication and to manage any complications early.
Why other options are wrong:
B. Hemoglobin A1C.
While hemoglobin A1C is used to monitor long-term blood sugar levels in patients with diabetes, it is not relevant for assessing the side effects of zidovudine. Zidovudine is not typically associated with significant changes in glucose metabolism, and hemoglobin A1C would not provide useful information for monitoring the hematologic effects of this medication.
C. Immunodeficiency panel.
An immunodeficiency panel is typically used to assess the function of the immune system, such as CD4 count and viral load, which are important for monitoring HIV progression. However, it does not assess the side effects of zidovudine, particularly its potential impact on bone marrow and blood cells, which is better evaluated by a CBC.
D. Serum glucose.
Serum glucose is used to assess blood sugar levels, and while some medications may affect glucose metabolism, zidovudine is not particularly known for causing significant changes in blood sugar. Therefore, monitoring serum glucose would not be the most appropriate test for assessing the side effects of zidovudine.
If a Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) wishes to expand their scope of practice, which document should they review to understand the legal boundaries of their practice?
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Code of ethics
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Core competencies of the APRN
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Nurse practice act
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Standards of practice
Explanation
Correct answer:
Nurse practice act
Explanation:
The Nurse Practice Act (NPA) is the legal document that defines the scope of practice for nurses, including Family Nurse Practitioners (FNPs). Each state has its own NPA, which outlines what nurses are legally allowed to do within that jurisdiction. It provides guidance on prescriptive authority, supervision requirements, and practice limitations. Reviewing the NPA helps FNPs understand what additional education, certifications, or legislative changes might be required to expand their scope of practice.
Why other options are wrong:
A. Code of ethics
The Code of Ethics for Nurses outlines ethical principles and professional conduct but does not define legal practice boundaries. While ethics influence decision-making, they do not establish the specific legal scope of practice for FNPs.
B. Core competencies of the APRN
Core competencies define the knowledge, skills, and behaviors expected of Advanced Practice Registered Nurses (APRNs), but they do not set legal limitations on practice. They serve as professional guidelines rather than legal mandates.
D. Standards of practice
Standards of practice provide guidance on how FNPs should deliver high-quality care, but they do not establish legal limitations. They focus on best practices and performance expectations rather than legal authorization to practice.
A 70-year-old man with type 2 diabetes and stage 3 chronic kidney disease presents for routine follow-up. His estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 45 mL/min/1.73 m², and his A₁c is 8.0 %. He is currently on metformin and glipizide. Which medication modification is most appropriate?
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Add sitagliptin (DPP-4 inhibitor)
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Switch metformin to glyburide (a sulfonylurea)
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Add empagliflozin (SGLT2 inhibitor)
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Discontinue glipizide and begin a GLP-1 receptor agonist
Explanation
Correct Answer:
Discontinue glipizide and begin a GLP-1 receptor agonist
Explanation:
Given the patient's reduced renal function (eGFR 45), sulfonylureas like glipizide increase the risk of hypoglycemia and are not preferred. GLP-1 receptor agonists have demonstrated cardiovascular and renal benefit and are appropriate for glycemic control in patients with moderate CKD. They align with FNP-level prescribing decisions that incorporate comorbidity management and renal safety.
Why Other Options Are Wrong:
Add sitagliptin (DPP-4 inhibitor)
While safer in renal impairment, DPP-4 inhibitors have less glycemic potency and less proven nephroprotective benefit compared to GLP-1 agonists.
Switch metformin to glyburide (a sulfonylurea)
Glyburide is contraindicated in CKD due to hypoglycemia risk. This change would increase patient harm.
Add empagliflozin (SGLT2 inhibitor)
SGLT2 inhibitors are less effective at eGFR 45 and require cautious use as efficacy decreases with declining renal function. GLP-1 agonists are safer and more effective in this context.
Which kind of biopsy does the adult-gerontology acute care nurse practitioner perform to evaluate cytology, only, in the tumor?
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Core.
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Excisional.
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Fine needle.
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Incisional.
Explanation
Correct answer:
c. Fine needle
Explanation:
A fine needle biopsy is a procedure in which a thin, hollow needle is used to remove a small sample of tissue from the tumor for cytological examination. This type of biopsy is ideal for obtaining cells from the tumor, which are then examined under a microscope to assess for abnormalities such as cancer. Fine needle biopsies are less invasive compared to other biopsy types and are specifically used for cytological analysis, making them the best choice for this purpose.
Why other options are wrong
a. Core
A core biopsy involves using a larger needle to remove a small, intact core of tissue from the tumor. This method provides more tissue than a fine needle biopsy and is typically used when a larger sample is needed for histological analysis, rather than cytology alone. Since the question specifies evaluating cytology only, a fine needle biopsy is the more appropriate choice.
b. Excisional
Excisional biopsy involves the removal of the entire tumor or a significant portion of it for examination. This method provides a larger sample of tissue for both histological and cytological analysis but is more invasive and generally reserved for situations where larger tissue samples are required. Since the focus is on evaluating cytology only, a fine needle biopsy is more appropriate.
d. Incisional
An incisional biopsy involves the removal of a portion of the tumor, typically when the tumor is too large to be completely excised. While it can provide valuable histological and cytological information, it is not the method of choice when the goal is solely to evaluate cytology. Fine needle biopsies are better suited for this specific purpose due to their ability to obtain a small sample for cytological examination.
Which organizations are mentioned as influencing the APRN scope of practice?
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AANP and ANA
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AMA and AAFP
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CDC and WHO
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NCSBN and ACEN
Explanation
Correct answer:
A. AANP and ANA
Explanation:
The American Association of Nurse Practitioners (AANP) and the American Nurses Association (ANA) play significant roles in shaping APRN practice. The AANP advocates for full practice authority and policy changes to expand the role of nurse practitioners, while the ANA works to advance nursing practice, including APRN regulations and professional standards. Both organizations influence legislative efforts and work to unify practice standards at the national level.
Why other options are wrong:
B. AMA and AAFP.
This is incorrect because the American Medical Association (AMA) and the American Academy of Family Physicians (AAFP) primarily represent physicians. While they may influence healthcare policy, they do not specifically advocate for APRN scope of practice expansion.
C. CDC and WHO.
This is incorrect because the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and the World Health Organization (WHO) focus on public health and disease control rather than APRN practice regulations.
D. NCSBN and ACEN.
This is incorrect because while the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN) helps develop model regulations for nursing practice, the Accreditation Commission for Education in Nursing (ACEN) primarily focuses on nursing education accreditation rather than directly influencing APRN scope of practice.
Goals set forth in Healthy People 2020 by the United States Department of Health and Human Services include the
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elimination of health disparities
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empowerment of healthcare delivery systems
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increase in life span of older adults
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treatment of acute diseases
Explanation
Correct answer
A: elimination of health disparities
Explanation
One of the key goals of Healthy People 2020 is the elimination of health disparities, which refers to addressing and reducing differences in health outcomes that exist among different populations. These disparities often result from factors such as socioeconomic status, race, ethnicity, gender, and access to healthcare services. Healthy People 2020 emphasizes improving health equity across all populations to achieve better health outcomes for everyone, especially those who have been historically underserved or marginalized.
Why other options are wrong
B. empowerment of healthcare delivery systems
While empowerment of healthcare systems is an important aspect of improving healthcare, the primary goal of Healthy People 2020 focuses on eliminating health disparities rather than simply empowering systems. Empowerment is a broader concept, but it is not specifically one of the overarching goals outlined in the initiative.
C. increase in life span of older adults
Although Healthy People 2020 includes objectives related to aging and older adult health, the primary goal is not solely the increase in life span of older adults. Rather, the focus is on improving overall health and quality of life, including addressing health disparities and promoting well-being in various age groups.
D. treatment of acute diseases
The treatment of acute diseases is important in healthcare but is not the central goal of Healthy People 2020. The initiative is focused more on preventive measures, health promotion, and reducing health disparities rather than just managing acute diseases.
Treatment of viral conjunctivitis includes the use of
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antihistamine and decongestant drops
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cold compresses
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hot compresses
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steroid eye drops
Explanation
Correct answer
B. cold compresses
Explanation
Viral conjunctivitis, commonly known as "pink eye," typically resolves on its own without the need for medical intervention such as antibiotics or steroid treatments. The main treatment goal is to alleviate symptoms, such as discomfort and swelling. Cold compresses can help soothe the irritation, reduce redness, and decrease swelling associated with viral conjunctivitis. This conservative approach provides symptomatic relief while the infection runs its course, usually within one to two weeks.
Why other options are wrong
A. antihistamine and decongestant drops
Antihistamine and decongestant drops are used primarily for allergic conjunctivitis, not viral conjunctivitis. These medications help reduce itching, swelling, and redness caused by allergic reactions. Since viral conjunctivitis is caused by a virus, antihistamines and decongestants are not effective in treating the viral infection and would not be the appropriate treatment.
C. hot compresses
Hot compresses are generally not recommended for viral conjunctivitis as they can increase irritation and swelling in the eye. Cold compresses are preferred because they help to reduce inflammation and provide soothing relief, which is beneficial in managing the symptoms of viral conjunctivitis. Hot compresses may exacerbate discomfort, especially in the acute phase of the infection.
D. steroid eye drops
Steroid eye drops are typically used for inflammatory conditions such as severe allergic reactions, autoimmune disorders, or other types of conjunctivitis with a significant inflammatory component. For viral conjunctivitis, steroids are not recommended because they can suppress the immune response, potentially prolonging the infection or increasing the risk of complications. Therefore, steroid eye drops are not appropriate for treating viral conjunctivitis.
What is the primary authority granted by licensure to an APRN?
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Authority to prescribe medications without restrictions
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Authority to supervise other healthcare providers
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Authority to perform surgeries
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Authority to use the title and practice within the scope defined by state law
Explanation
Correct answer:
D. Authority to use the title and practice within the scope defined by state law
Explanation:
Licensure grants APRNs the legal authority to practice within the scope defined by their state’s Nurse Practice Act. This includes specific roles such as diagnosing, treating patients, and prescribing medications, depending on state regulations. Licensure ensures that APRNs meet educational and certification requirements before being allowed to practice.
Why other options are wrong:
A. Authority to prescribe medications without restrictions
This is incorrect because prescriptive authority varies by state, and some states impose restrictions, such as requiring physician oversight or limiting the types of medications an APRN can prescribe.
B. Authority to supervise other healthcare providers
This is incorrect because licensure does not automatically grant the authority to supervise other providers. Supervision authority depends on workplace policies and state laws.
C. Authority to perform surgeries
This is incorrect because APRNs, including nurse practitioners, are not licensed to perform surgeries. Surgical procedures are typically performed by physicians or certified registered nurse anesthetists (CRNAs) with specialized training.
An 18-year-old patient describes having bugs crawl beneath their skin during a mental status evaluation. This statement is recorded by the psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner as a:
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developmental disorder, and suspects cocaine use.
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hypnagogic hallucination, and suspects schizophrenia.
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hypnopompic hallucination, and suspects schizophrenia.
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perceptual disturbance, and suspects the use of cocaine.
Explanation
Correct answer:
d. perceptual disturbance, and suspects the use of cocaine.
Explanation:
The sensation of bugs crawling under the skin is a type of tactile hallucination, which is a form of perceptual disturbance. Tactile hallucinations are commonly associated with the use of stimulant drugs such as cocaine, which can cause sensory disturbances in the form of “crawling” sensations or other abnormal tactile experiences. The presence of this perceptual disturbance raises suspicion for cocaine use, as it is a known side effect of stimulant intoxication.
Why other options are wrong
a. developmental disorder, and suspects cocaine use
The feeling of bugs crawling under the skin is not typical of a developmental disorder. Developmental disorders generally involve delays or impairments in cognitive, social, and motor skills, and this patient’s symptom of tactile hallucination is more likely related to substance use rather than a developmental disorder.
b. hypnagogic hallucination, and suspects schizophrenia
Hypnagogic hallucinations occur during the transition from wakefulness to sleep and typically involve visual or auditory experiences, not tactile sensations. Schizophrenia can involve hallucinations, but the description of bugs crawling under the skin is more indicative of a substance-related perceptual disturbance, not a symptom of schizophrenia in this context.
c. hypnopompic hallucination, and suspects schizophrenia
Hypnopompic hallucinations occur during the transition from sleep to wakefulness. This patient’s report does not fit that timing, and the sensation of bugs crawling under the skin is a tactile hallucination, not a visual or auditory one commonly associated with schizophrenia. The most likely explanation involves drug use rather than schizophrenia.
A two-month-old patient has a strawberry hemangioma 2 cm in diameter on the left buttock. When speaking with the patient's parents, the family nurse practitioner
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advises that the lesion should spontaneously resolve
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asks about any history of gestational diabetes
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investigates any family history of skin disorders
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refers the patient to a dermatologist
Explanation
Correct answer
A. advises that the lesion should spontaneously resolve
Explanation
A strawberry hemangioma, a common benign vascular tumor, typically resolves on its own as the child grows. These lesions often appear shortly after birth and may continue to grow for a few months before gradually shrinking and disappearing, usually by the age of 5 to 10 years. In this case, the family nurse practitioner can reassure the parents that spontaneous resolution is likely, and no immediate treatment is necessary unless the hemangioma causes complications such as ulceration or functional impairment. Monitoring the lesion for changes over time is usually sufficient.
Why other options are wrong
B. asks about any history of gestational diabetes
Gestational diabetes is associated with a slightly increased risk of developing hemangiomas in infants, but it is not a primary concern in the case of a single strawberry hemangioma. The lesion described in this patient is typical for this age and type of hemangioma, so asking about gestational diabetes is not immediately necessary unless there are other signs or multiple hemangiomas, which might suggest a different underlying issue.
C. investigates any family history of skin disorders
While a family history of skin disorders could be relevant for other conditions, it is less likely to be significant in the case of a solitary strawberry hemangioma. These lesions are generally not inherited and are more related to the infant's development. There is no immediate need to investigate family history unless the patient has a more complex presentation with multiple or unusual lesions.
D. refers the patient to a dermatologist
Referral to a dermatologist is typically not necessary for a single, isolated strawberry hemangioma unless it is causing complications such as bleeding, ulceration, or interference with function. In this case, the lesion is small, and the appropriate approach is observation and reassurance. Referring to a dermatologist would be premature, as most hemangiomas resolve naturally without intervention.
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