RADR 1309 Introduction to Radiography and Patient Care

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Free RADR 1309 Introduction to Radiography and Patient Care Questions

1.

Enclosed incubators can be found in the:

  • NICU

  • PACU

  • ICU

  • Cath lab

Explanation

Correct Answer: A) NICU

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

A. NICU (Neonatal Intensive Care Unit): Enclosed incubators are commonly used in the NICU for the care of newborns, especially premature or sick infants. These incubators help maintain a stable temperature and provide a controlled environment for infants who are unable to regulate their body temperature due to their underdeveloped systems.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. PACU (Post Anesthesia Care Unit): The PACU is used to monitor patients as they recover from anesthesia. This unit does not typically use incubators, as its focus is on recovery from surgery or procedures, not on neonatal care.

C. ICU (Intensive Care Unit): While the ICU is equipped with various types of critical care equipment, incubators are specifically designed for neonatal care, and the ICU is primarily focused on adult or pediatric patients who are critically ill or recovering from surgery.

D. Cath lab (Catheterization Laboratory): The Cath lab is used for minimally invasive diagnostic and interventional procedures, typically involving the heart or vascular system. Incubators are not used here, as the focus is on imaging and procedural interventions.

Summary:

Enclosed incubators
are most commonly found in the NICU, where they are used to provide a controlled environment for newborns, especially those who are premature or critically ill.


2.

Choose the two (2) types of artificial radiation:

  • Radionuclides

  • Cosmic radiation

  • Medical exposures

  • Naturally occurring radioactive substances present on earth

Explanation

Correct Answer:

A) Radionuclides

C) Medical exposures


Explanation of the Correct Answer:

Artificial radiation is radiation that is man-made or the result of human activity.

Radionuclides are artificially created radioactive materials used in various applications, including medical imaging and treatment (such as in nuclear medicine).

Medical exposures refer to radiation used in healthcare for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes, such as X-rays, CT scans, and radiation therapy. These are examples of artificial radiation.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

B) Cosmic radiation

Cosmic radiation is a type of natural radiation that comes from outer space and interacts with the Earth's atmosphere. It is not artificially generated.

D) Naturally occurring radioactive substances present on earth


Naturally occurring radioactive substances are also natural sources of radiation (such as radon or uranium) and are not artificially produced.

Summary:

Artificial radiation includes radionuclides and medical exposures, both of which are intentionally created or used by humans.


3.

In what situation is the use of barium contraindicated?

  • Pneumonia

  • Pneumothorax

  • Perforations in the GI tract

  • Hiatal hernia

Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Perforations in the GI tract

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

Barium is a radiopaque contrast medium commonly used in X-ray imaging to help visualize the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. However, the use of barium is contraindicated in cases of perforations in the GI tract. If there is a perforation (a hole) in the wall of the GI tract, barium can leak into the abdominal cavity, leading to peritonitis, a serious and potentially life-threatening infection of the abdominal lining. In such cases, a different type of contrast, such as water-soluble contrast (e.g., iodinated contrast), is preferred, as it can be safely absorbed or eliminated by the body in case of leakage.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Pneumonia

Barium is not contraindicated in pneumonia. Pneumonia affects the lungs and respiratory system, and while barium is used primarily for GI studies, it does not interfere with pneumonia or the lungs directly. Therefore, barium can still be used in imaging studies for other parts of the body, such as the GI tract, even if a patient has pneumonia.

B. Pneumothorax

A pneumothorax (collapsed lung) involves the presence of air in the pleural cavity and is unrelated to the GI tract. The use of barium is not contraindicated in pneumothorax, as barium is typically used for GI studies, and it would not interfere with the treatment of pneumothorax. However, special care should be taken in any patient with respiratory issues when performing any imaging study.

D. Hiatal hernia

A hiatal hernia occurs when part of the stomach pushes through the diaphragm into the chest cavity. This condition does not prevent the use of barium for imaging, and in fact, a barium swallow study is often used to help diagnose and evaluate the extent of a hiatal hernia. Barium can safely be used in this situation as it provides detailed imaging of the esophagus and stomach.

Summary:

Barium is contraindicated in cases of perforations in the GI tract, as leakage of barium into the abdominal cavity can lead to severe complications like peritonitis. In contrast, conditions such as pneumonia, pneumothorax, and hiatal hernia do not pose a risk for barium use, and it can be safely used for imaging the GI tract in these cases.


4.

Which of the following statements concerning kidney function is correct?

  • A high creatinine level is associated with a high glomerular filtration rate (GFR) level.

  • High BUN and creatinine levels are associated with a low glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

  • High blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels are indicators that iodine contrast media is acceptable for a patient.

  • Lower-than-normal creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels indicate that the kidneys are filtering insufficient amounts of waste.

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. High BUN and creatinine levels are associated with a low glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

When kidney function is impaired, the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) decreases, leading to the accumulation of waste products like creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) in the bloodstream. These elevated levels are indicative of reduced kidney function and often suggest that the kidneys are not filtering waste efficiently. A low GFR means the kidneys are not removing waste as effectively, and therefore, elevated levels of BUN and creatinine are typically seen in patients with impaired kidney function.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. A high creatinine level is associated with a high glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

This statement is incorrect. A high creatinine level is usually associated with impaired kidney function, which leads to a low GFR. When kidney function is normal or high, creatinine levels are typically lower.

C. High blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels are indicators that iodine contrast media is acceptable for a patient.

This statement is incorrect. High levels of BUN and creatinine are often signs of kidney dysfunction, and this would actually raise concern when considering the use of iodine contrast media, as the kidneys are responsible for clearing the contrast media. For patients with elevated BUN and creatinine levels, caution is needed to avoid further kidney damage.

D. Lower-than-normal creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels indicate that the kidneys are filtering insufficient amounts of waste.

This statement is incorrect. Low levels of creatinine and BUN generally suggest good kidney function, as these waste products are being efficiently filtered out of the bloodstream. It would typically indicate that the kidneys are functioning well, not poorly.

Summary:

Elevated levels of creatinine and BUN are indicative of impaired kidney function, leading to a low GFR. This is an important consideration in evaluating a patient's ability to safely undergo procedures involving iodine contrast media, as the kidneys are responsible for eliminating the contrast from the body. Therefore, high BUN and creatinine levels suggest reduced kidney function, which can complicate the use of contrast media.


5.

A technologist who has completed a procedure on a patient leaves the area grumbling, "I hate to do AIDS patients because I am afraid of catching the disease." A member of the housekeeping staff hears the technologist and asks who the AIDS patient is, so he can pass the information along to his co-workers for safety reasons. The technologist responds by giving the patient's name and room number. After the incident, housekeeping personnel refuse to clean the room. One person from housekeeping tells the story to members of the housekeeper's church, where the patient is also a church member. After learning of the patient's condition, the church asks the patient not to return to church. What type of complaint might be brought against the technologist?

  • Negligence

  • Defamation

  • Assault

  • False imprisonment

Explanation

Correct Answer

B. Defamation

Explanation of the Correct Answer

This scenario involves a breach of patient confidentiality and harm to the patient’s reputation due to the unauthorized disclosure of private medical information. The technologist revealed the patient’s HIV/AIDS status and identity, which is protected health information (PHI) under HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act). The disclosure led to social consequences for the patient, including ostracization by church members. Because the shared information resulted in harm to the patient’s reputation and social standing, the situation qualifies as defamation. In this context, it is a case of slander, which is spoken defamation, and it carries serious ethical and legal implications.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

A. Negligence – Negligence involves failure to exercise reasonable care, leading to physical harm or injury. While unethical and inappropriate, the technologist's actions were not a failure in standard care delivery nor did they cause physical harm in a procedural sense.

C. Assault – Assault involves a threat of physical harm or creating reasonable fear of imminent injury. There is no physical threat or coercion in this case.

D. False imprisonment – This refers to unlawfully restricting a person’s freedom of movement, such as physically restraining someone without justification. That did not occur here.

Summary

The technologist unlawfully disclosed private health information that directly caused reputational harm and social exclusion of the patient. This constitutes defamation, making the correct answer B. Defamation.


6.

The legal doctrine of res ipsa loquitur intends to shift the burden of proof from the plaintiff to the defendant (technologist). It implies that the patient was injured through no fault of his or her own while in the complete control of another. An example of this would be a:

  • patient marking the wrong body part for surgery while still awake.

  • patient "ripping" their bandages off after surgery because they are painful.

  • patient's skin being torn as he is transferred from a cart to his bed.

  • patient saying something very crude during surgery in a state of anesthesia.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C. patient’s skin being torn as he is transferred from a cart to his bed.

Explanation of the Correct Answer

The legal doctrine of res ipsa loquitur, Latin for “the thing speaks for itself,” is used in tort law to infer negligence when the exact cause of injury is unknown, but the nature of the accident strongly suggests carelessness by someone in control. It applies when:

1. The injury would not ordinarily occur without negligence.


2. The instrumentality or process causing the injury was under the exclusive control of the defendant.

3. The patient did not contribute to the injury.

Option C is a classic example: if a patient sustains a skin tear while being transferred—a process fully controlled by medical personnel—then it is presumed that negligence occurred, unless the technologists or staff can prove otherwise. The patient is passive in the event and not responsible, so the burden of proof shifts to the defendant to explain how the injury happened without negligence.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

A. Patient marking the wrong body part – This is an action taken by the patient, not something done to them while under the control of healthcare providers, so res ipsa loquitur does not apply.

B. Patient removing bandages – Again, this is a self-inflicted act; the patient is not under complete control of others, so the doctrine doesn't apply.

D. Saying something crude under anesthesia – This may reflect altered consciousness, but it is not a physical injury and doesn’t involve negligent care resulting in harm.

Summary

Res ipsa loquitur applies when a patient suffers harm during a process entirely controlled by medical personnel, with no contribution from the patient. C. patient’s skin being torn as he is transferred from a cart to his bed best fits this legal doctrine.


7.

Diabetic patients who are to receive an iodine contrast agent should have their medication withheld if it contains:

  • Insulin

  • Metformin

  • Sulfonylureas

  • Thiazolidinediones (TZDs)

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. Metformin

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

Diabetic patients who are to receive an iodine contrast agent should have their metformin medication withheld before and after the procedure due to the potential risk of lactic acidosis. Metformin is excreted by the kidneys, and iodine contrast agents can temporarily affect kidney function. If kidney function is impaired, the accumulation of metformin in the body could increase the risk of lactic acidosis, a potentially life-threatening condition. To mitigate this risk, it is standard practice to temporarily withhold metformin before and for at least 48 hours after receiving an iodine-based contrast agent, and to ensure renal function is normal before resuming the medication.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Insulin

There is no specific contraindication for insulin use with iodine contrast agents. Insulin can be continued as needed to control blood glucose levels. However, adjustments in the insulin regimen may be required depending on the patient's fasting status and other factors.

C. Sulfonylureas

Sulfonylureas are oral diabetic medications that stimulate insulin production. While there may be some concern regarding hypoglycemia during imaging procedures due to fasting, they are not directly contraindicated with the use of iodine contrast agents. Patients may need to adjust their sulfonylurea dosing, but there is no specific reason to withhold these medications solely because of the contrast.

D. Thiazolidinediones (TZDs)

Thiazolidinediones (such as pioglitazone) are another class of oral diabetes medications that work by improving insulin sensitivity. There is no significant contraindication for withholding TZDs before or after receiving iodine contrast agents. These medications do not pose the same risk as metformin when it comes to contrast-induced nephropathy or lactic acidosis.

Summary:

Metformin should be withheld in diabetic patients receiving an iodine contrast agent to reduce the risk of lactic acidosis due to potential renal impairment. Other medications, such as insulin, sulfonylureas, and TZDs, do not require withholding prior to receiving iodine contrast, although adjustments may be needed based on individual patient factors.


8.

When comparing positioning sponges to sandbags, all of the following statements are true except:

  • Positioning sponges are designed to support the anatomic area of interest in place for the exam

  • Positioning sponges can reduce physical strain on the patient from having to hold a position

  • Positioning sponges are radiopaque and sandbags are radiolucent

  • Sandbags can be used to help immobilize the area of interest

Explanation

Correct Answer:

C) Positioning sponges are radiopaque and sandbags are radiolucent

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

This statement is incorrect. Positioning sponges are typically radiolucent, meaning they do not interfere with the X-ray beam and do not show up on the radiographic image. On the other hand, sandbags are radiopaque, meaning they can be seen on the radiograph and may interfere with the imaging process if they are not properly positioned or removed from the area of interest.

Why the Other Options Are Correct:

A) Positioning sponges are designed to support the anatomic area of interest in place for the exam

This is true. Positioning sponges are used to support and stabilize the patient, ensuring the area of interest is positioned correctly for the examination.

B) Positioning sponges can reduce physical strain on the patient from having to hold a position


This is true. Positioning sponges help support the patient's body in a comfortable and stable position, reducing the need for the patient to strain in order to hold the correct posture during the exam.

D) Sandbags can be used to help immobilize the area of interest


This is true. Sandbags are commonly used to help immobilize the patient or the area of interest to ensure accurate and clear imaging. However, care must be taken to ensure that sandbags do not interfere with the area of interest in the final radiograph.

Summary:

Positioning sponges are typically radiolucent, and sandbags are radiopaque. Understanding this difference is crucial to ensuring that neither the sponge nor the sandbag interferes with the radiographic image. The other statements regarding the use of positioning sponges and sandbags in supporting or immobilizing the patient are correct.


9.

Myelogram uses which type of contrast?

  • High osmolar contrast

  • Non-ionic contrast

  • Barium sulfate

  • Gadolinium

Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Non-ionic contrast

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

B. Non-ionic contrast: A myelogram involves injecting contrast media into the spinal canal to visualize the spinal cord, nerve roots, and surrounding structures. Non-ionic contrast agents are typically used in myelography due to their lower osmolarity and reduced risk of adverse reactions compared to ionic contrast agents. Non-ionic contrast is preferred because it is safer for use in the spinal canal and surrounding tissues, which are sensitive to irritation and potential harm.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. High osmolar contrast: High osmolar contrast agents are more likely to cause side effects and are less commonly used in procedures like myelography. They tend to be more toxic and irritating to tissues, especially in delicate areas like the spinal canal.

C. Barium sulfate: Barium sulfate is typically used for gastrointestinal (GI) studies, not for myelograms. Barium is not safe for intrathecal (spinal canal) injection because it is a suspension and can cause severe complications if injected into the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).

D. Gadolinium: Gadolinium-based contrast agents are used primarily in magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), not in myelography. Gadolinium is used to enhance MRI images of the brain, spine, and joints, but it is not used in traditional myelograms which involve X-ray or CT imaging.

Summary:

A myelogram
typically uses non-ionic contrast media due to its safety profile and reduced risk of adverse reactions, making it ideal for injection into the spinal canal.


10.

What is the most common reaction to iodinated contrast media?

  • Hives

  • Itching

  • Vomiting

  • Edema

Explanation

Correct Answer:

A. Hives

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

The most common reaction to iodinated contrast media is hives (urticaria). This reaction is typically mild and is characterized by raised, red, itchy welts on the skin. It is a common allergic response to contrast agents, and while it can be uncomfortable, it is usually not life-threatening.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. Itching

While itching can occur as part of a mild allergic reaction, hives (raised welts on the skin) are generally considered a more common and characteristic manifestation in response to contrast media.

C. Vomiting


Vomiting is a possible side effect of iodinated contrast media, but it is not as common as hives. Vomiting can be associated with more severe reactions or may occur due to other causes unrelated to the contrast.

D. Edema


Edema (swelling) is a potential reaction, but it is not as common as hives. Edema can occur in more severe reactions and is typically associated with angioedema, which involves deeper swelling in the skin or mucous membranes, often around the eyes and lips.

Summary:

The most common reaction to iodinated contrast media is hives. While itching, vomiting, and edema can also occur, hives are generally the most frequently observed response.


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Frequently Asked Question

RADR 1309 is a foundational course that introduces students to the profession of radiologic technology, emphasizing patient care, safety practices, communication, and basic imaging procedures.

The course includes radiation protection, body mechanics, patient communication, medical ethics, infection control, and basic radiographic procedures.

Course duration varies by institution, but it typically spans one semester as part of an allied health or radiologic technology program.

With the right preparation and resources, including scenario-based questions and clear rationales, most students find RADR 1309 manageable and rewarding.

Practice regularly with real-world scenarios, review course materials thoroughly, and focus on developing both technical knowledge and patient care skills.

Your subscription gives you access to expertly crafted practice questions, clinical scenarios, detailed answer explanations, and coverage of all key exam areas.