RADR 1309 Introduction to Radiography and Patient Care

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Free RADR 1309 Introduction to Radiography and Patient Care Questions

1.

Upper GI studies can diagnose:

  • Gallstones

  • Hiatal Hernias

  • Kidney stones

  • Broken bones

Explanation

Correct Answer: B) Hiatal Hernias

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

B. Hiatal Hernias: An upper gastrointestinal (GI) study, such as an upper GI series or fluoroscopy, is primarily used to evaluate the upper digestive tract, which includes the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum. One condition that can be diagnosed with this type of study is a hiatal hernia, where a portion of the stomach pushes through the diaphragm into the chest cavity. The radiologist can observe this using contrast media, which highlights the anatomy of the digestive system.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Gallstones: Gallstones are diagnosed through ultrasound or sometimes a CT scan, not through an upper GI study. An upper GI exam focuses on the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum, while gallstones form in the gallbladder, which is outside the scope of an upper GI study.

C. Kidney stones: Kidney stones are usually diagnosed using a CT scan, ultrasound, or X-ray (specifically for abdominal or renal studies), not an upper GI study. Kidney stones are located in the kidneys or urinary tract, which is not evaluated in an upper GI exam.

D. Broken bones: Broken bones are best diagnosed through X-rays or CT scans. Upper GI studies do not focus on the musculoskeletal system and would not be used to diagnose fractures.

Summary:

An upper GI study
is used to diagnose conditions related to the upper gastrointestinal system, such as hiatal hernias. It is not used to diagnose gallstones, kidney stones, or broken bones.


2.

Premedication is required for which type of patient undergoing IV injection of contrast media?

  • Patient with diabetes

  • Patient with elevated BUN or creatinine

  • Patient with known allergy to iodine

  • Patient with chronic or acute renal failure

Explanation

Correct Answer:

C. Patient with known allergy to iodine

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

Premedication is primarily required for patients with a known allergy to iodine or previous reactions to iodinated contrast media. Premedication usually involves the use of antihistamines and corticosteroids to reduce the likelihood and severity of an allergic reaction to the contrast material.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Patient with diabetes

While diabetes is a consideration when choosing contrast media due to the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy, premedication is not specifically required for diabetic patients unless they have a known allergy to iodine or another risk factor.

B. Patient with elevated BUN or creatinine


Elevated BUN (Blood Urea Nitrogen) or creatinine levels are indicators of renal impairment, which increases the risk of nephrotoxicity from iodinated contrast media. However, premedication is not typically necessary for these patients; instead, contrast media should be carefully chosen and, in some cases, hydration or other interventions may be used.

D. Patient with chronic or acute renal failure


In patients with chronic or acute renal failure, there is a risk of nephrotoxicity from the contrast media, but premedication is not specifically required for these patients. Instead, precautions such as using lower doses of contrast, opting for non-iodinated contrast, or careful monitoring of renal function post-procedure are considered.

Summary:

Premedication is required for patients with a known allergy to iodine to prevent potential allergic reactions during the administration of iodinated contrast media.


3.

_______ are used to administer a variety of drugs, manage fluid volume, serve as a conduit for blood analysis and transfusions, and monitor cardiac pressures.

  • Central venous lines

  • Thoracostomy tubes

  • Endotracheal tubes

  • Oxygen masks

Explanation

Correct Answer:

A) Central venous lines

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

Central venous lines (CVLs) are long, flexible tubes inserted into a large vein, usually in the neck, chest, or groin, that provide access to the central venous system. These lines are commonly used in critical care settings for a variety of purposes, including:

Administering medications and fluids: They allow for the delivery of drugs, fluids, and nutrition directly into the bloodstream, which is crucial for patients who require rapid or constant administration.

Managing fluid volume: CVLs are used to monitor and adjust the volume of fluids in a patient's body, particularly in cases of dehydration or fluid overload.

Blood analysis and transfusions: Central venous lines serve as a conduit for drawing blood for laboratory tests or administering blood products, such as during transfusions.

Monitoring cardiac pressures: These lines are also used to measure central venous pressure (CVP), which provides important information about a patient’s cardiac function and fluid status.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

B) Thoracostomy tubes

Thoracostomy tubes, also known as chest tubes, are used to drain air, fluid, or blood from the pleural space (the area between the lung and chest wall). These tubes are primarily used to treat conditions like pneumothorax (collapsed lung), pleural effusion (fluid accumulation), or hemothorax (blood accumulation), but they are not used for drug administration, blood analysis, or monitoring cardiac pressures.

C) Endotracheal tubes


Endotracheal tubes (ET tubes) are used to maintain an open airway in patients who are unconscious or under general anesthesia. They are inserted into the trachea to help patients breathe, particularly in cases of respiratory failure. However, ET tubes are not used for administering drugs, managing fluid volume, or monitoring cardiac pressures.

D) Oxygen masks


Oxygen masks are devices used to deliver supplemental oxygen to patients who have difficulty breathing or require additional oxygen. While they are vital for respiratory support, they do not serve the multiple purposes that central venous lines do, such as drug administration, blood analysis, fluid management, or monitoring of cardiac pressures.

Summary:

Central venous lines (CVLs) are versatile medical devices that provide access to the central venous system for administering medications, managing fluids, drawing blood for analysis, and monitoring cardiac pressures. They are essential tools in intensive care and critical care settings.


4.

A syringe contains which of the following parts?

  • Barrel, cannula, hub

  • Tip, barrel, plunger

  • Hub, tip, shaft

  • Tip, plunger, bevel

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B) Tip, barrel, plunger

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

A syringe consists of three main parts:

Tip: The part of the syringe where the needle is attached.

Barrel: The outer casing of the syringe that holds the medication or fluid.

Plunger: The part that is pushed to force the fluid out of the syringe or pulled to draw fluid into the barrel.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A) Barrel, cannula, hub

This option is incorrect because the cannula is the tube part of the needle, not a component of the syringe itself. The hub is part of the needle assembly, not the syringe.

C) Hub, tip, shaft


This is incorrect because the hub and shaft refer to parts of the needle, not the syringe. The syringe itself does not have a shaft or hub.

D) Tip, plunger, bevel


This is incorrect because the bevel is the angled tip of the needle, not part of the syringe. The syringe includes the tip, barrel, and plunger, but not the bevel.

Summary:

A syringe consists of the tip, barrel, and plunger. These parts work together to hold and deliver fluids accurately.


5.

As you begin a barium study of the colon, the patient states clearly that she wants the examination to stop. The professional imaging technologist should:

  • turn off the barium, clean up the patient, and exit her from the room quickly.

  • record the amount of barium given to the patient and charge her accordingly

  • insist that she can handle the barium enema and that once you have started it needs to be completed as you cannot get the barium out.

  • stop the barium, drain as much of it as possible from the patient's colon, and courteously conclude the examination.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D. stop the barium, drain as much of it as possible from the patient's colon, and courteously conclude the examination.

Explanation of the Correct Answer

In medical imaging, patient autonomy and informed consent are foundational ethical and legal principles. A patient has the right to refuse or withdraw consent at any point during a procedure, even after it has started. When the patient requests to stop the exam, the technologist must immediately cease the procedure, act professionally, and ensure the patient’s comfort, safety, and dignity. The correct professional response is to stop the barium flow, drain what can be removed, and conclude the exam courteously, explaining any necessary follow-up steps or who to contact with further questions.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

A. Turn off the barium, clean up the patient, and exit her from the room quickly – While this includes stopping the procedure, it is abrupt and dismissive. Patients should never be rushed out; they deserve compassionate care, clear communication, and proper handling.

B. Record the amount of barium given to the patient and charge her accordingly – This is an administrative task, not the technologist’s immediate concern in the context of respecting patient autonomy and safely stopping the procedure. Billing does not take precedence over patient care.

C. Insist that she can handle the barium enema and that once you have started it needs to be completed as you cannot get the barium out – This is ethically and legally unacceptable. No procedure can be forced once a patient withdraws consent. This response violates both professional standards and patient rights.

Summary

When a patient requests that a procedure be stopped, the imaging technologist must respect that decision, ensure the safe and professional termination of the exam, and treat the patient with dignity and care. The correct answer is D. stop the barium, drain as much of it as possible from the patient's colon, and courteously conclude the examination.


6.

For which of the following exams would barium sulfate be the contrast media of choice?

  • Small bowel

  • Intravenous pyelogram

  • Myelogram

  • Arthrogram

Explanation

Correct Answer: A. Small bowel

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

Barium sulfate is the contrast media of choice for gastrointestinal (GI) tract studies, including the small bowel follow-through exam. It is ideal for outlining the mucosa of the GI tract because of its high atomic number (56), which effectively absorbs X-rays and provides excellent contrast on radiographic images. Barium sulfate coats the lining of the small intestine, allowing radiologists to observe its structure and function, assess for abnormalities such as strictures, tumors, ulcers, or obstructions, and evaluate motility. Since it is not absorbed by the body and remains confined to the GI tract, it is safe for use in patients without a risk of perforation or suspected bowel injury.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. Intravenous pyelogram


This exam is a study of the urinary system, including kidneys, ureters, and bladder. It requires a water-soluble iodinated contrast agent, which is injected intravenously and excreted through the urinary system. Barium sulfate is not appropriate because it does not enter or highlight the urinary tract.

C. Myelogram


A myelogram is used to examine the spinal cord, nerve roots, and meninges. The contrast must be injected into the subarachnoid space, which requires a non-ionic, water-soluble iodinated contrast agent that is safe in the central nervous system. Barium sulfate is contraindicated here, as it is not water-soluble and would pose serious health risks if introduced into the spinal canal.

D. Arthrogram


An arthrogram evaluates joints (such as the shoulder or knee) by injecting contrast into the joint space. Like a myelogram, this procedure uses a water-soluble iodinated contrast or gadolinium (for MRI), not barium sulfate, as barium is not absorbed and could provoke inflammation or joint damage if introduced into soft tissue spaces.

Summary:

Barium sulfate is specifically designed for GI tract imaging, making it the ideal contrast for a small bowel exam. It is not appropriate for vascular, central nervous system, or joint studies due to its insolubility and localized action in the digestive tract.


7.

What is the purpose of a chest tube?
 

  • Remove bile from the common bile duct

  • Drain urine for measurement

  • Remove air or fluid in the pleural cavity

  • Remove contrast from large colon

Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Remove air or fluid in the pleural cavity

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

A chest tube is inserted into the pleural cavity, the space between the lungs and the chest wall, to remove air, fluid, or blood that may be causing pressure on the lungs. This is typically done to treat conditions like pneumothorax (air in the pleural space) or pleural effusion (fluid in the pleural space).

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Remove bile from the common bile duct

This option is incorrect because a chest tube is not used to remove bile from the common bile duct. Procedures like bile duct drainage or surgery are used for that purpose.

B. Drain urine for measurement

Urine drainage is typically done using a catheter, not a chest tube. A chest tube is specifically for the pleural cavity, not for the urinary system.

D. Remove contrast from large colon

Contrast removal from the large colon is not a function of a chest tube. Procedures involving the large colon, such as colonoscopy or enemas, would be used for this purpose.

Summary:

A chest tube is used to remove air, fluid, or blood from the pleural cavity to alleviate pressure on the lungs, allowing for proper lung expansion and improving breathing function.


8.

All are considered part of the sterile surgical team except:

  • Radiographer

  • Surgical tech

  • Surgeon

  • Physician assistant

Explanation

Correct Answer: A) Radiographer

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

A. Radiographer: A radiographer is typically not part of the sterile surgical team. Although they play an essential role in providing imaging during the surgery (e.g., fluoroscopy, X-rays), they are usually not involved in sterile procedures and are positioned outside the sterile field. They do not handle sterile instruments or interact directly with the surgical site.

Why the Other Options Are Correct:

B. Surgical tech: A surgical technologist (or scrub tech) is part of the sterile surgical team and is responsible for preparing the sterile field, passing instruments to the surgeon, and assisting during the surgery.

C. Surgeon: The surgeon is the primary member of the sterile surgical team. They perform the actual surgery and are directly responsible for the patient's surgical care.

D. Physician assistant: A physician assistant (PA) working in surgery is also considered part of the sterile surgical team. They may assist with the surgery, help with patient preparation, and perform specific tasks under the surgeon’s direction.

Summary:

The radiographer
is not typically part of the sterile surgical team. While they contribute significantly to intraoperative imaging, they are generally positioned outside the sterile field and do not engage in sterile procedures. The surgical tech, surgeon, and physician assistant are all considered part of the sterile team.


9.

When comparing positioning sponges to sandbags, all of the following statements are true except:

  • Positioning sponges are designed to support the anatomic area of interest in place for the exam

  • Positioning sponges can reduce physical strain on the patient from having to hold a position

  • Positioning sponges are radiopaque and sandbags are radiolucent

  • Sandbags can be used to help immobilize the area of interest

Explanation

Correct Answer:

C) Positioning sponges are radiopaque and sandbags are radiolucent

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

This statement is incorrect. Positioning sponges are typically radiolucent, meaning they do not interfere with the X-ray beam and do not show up on the radiographic image. On the other hand, sandbags are radiopaque, meaning they can be seen on the radiograph and may interfere with the imaging process if they are not properly positioned or removed from the area of interest.

Why the Other Options Are Correct:

A) Positioning sponges are designed to support the anatomic area of interest in place for the exam

This is true. Positioning sponges are used to support and stabilize the patient, ensuring the area of interest is positioned correctly for the examination.

B) Positioning sponges can reduce physical strain on the patient from having to hold a position


This is true. Positioning sponges help support the patient's body in a comfortable and stable position, reducing the need for the patient to strain in order to hold the correct posture during the exam.

D) Sandbags can be used to help immobilize the area of interest


This is true. Sandbags are commonly used to help immobilize the patient or the area of interest to ensure accurate and clear imaging. However, care must be taken to ensure that sandbags do not interfere with the area of interest in the final radiograph.

Summary:

Positioning sponges are typically radiolucent, and sandbags are radiopaque. Understanding this difference is crucial to ensuring that neither the sponge nor the sandbag interferes with the radiographic image. The other statements regarding the use of positioning sponges and sandbags in supporting or immobilizing the patient are correct.


10.

According to Heimlich Maneuver on an adult:

  • The rescuer's hand should be at the level of the center at the sternum

  • The head of the patient should be kept lower than the rest of the body

  • The rescuer's hand should be above the navel and below the sternum

  • The rescuer applies pressure inward and outward

Explanation

Correct Answer

C. The rescuer's hand should be above the navel and below the sternum

Explanation of the Correct Answer

The Heimlich maneuver, also known as abdominal thrusts, is a first aid procedure used to treat upper airway obstructions (choking) in conscious adults. The correct hand placement is above the navel (belly button) and below the sternum (breastbone), at the upper abdominal region. The rescuer forms a fist with one hand, places the thumb side against the abdomen in this location, and grasps it with the other hand. This position targets the diaphragm, allowing the force of the thrusts to rapidly compress the lungs and generate a burst of air that may expel the object obstructing the airway.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect

A. The rescuer's hand should be at the level of the center at the sternum – This would place pressure on the chest, not the abdomen. Chest compressions are used during CPR, not the Heimlich maneuver for conscious adults.

B. The head of the patient should be kept lower than the rest of the body – This applies to infants in some cases, not to adults. For adults, an upright position is recommended during abdominal thrusts.

D. The rescuer applies pressure inward and outward – The correct motion is inward and upward, directed toward the diaphragm to expel the blockage from the airway.

Summary

Proper hand placement for the Heimlich maneuver on an adult is above the navel and below the sternum, making C the correct and safe answer.


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Frequently Asked Question

RADR 1309 is a foundational course that introduces students to the profession of radiologic technology, emphasizing patient care, safety practices, communication, and basic imaging procedures.

The course includes radiation protection, body mechanics, patient communication, medical ethics, infection control, and basic radiographic procedures.

Course duration varies by institution, but it typically spans one semester as part of an allied health or radiologic technology program.

With the right preparation and resources, including scenario-based questions and clear rationales, most students find RADR 1309 manageable and rewarding.

Practice regularly with real-world scenarios, review course materials thoroughly, and focus on developing both technical knowledge and patient care skills.

Your subscription gives you access to expertly crafted practice questions, clinical scenarios, detailed answer explanations, and coverage of all key exam areas.