RADR 1309 Introduction to Radiography and Patient Care

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Free RADR 1309 Introduction to Radiography and Patient Care Questions

1.

Which of the following drugs would most likely be administered to a patient experiencing an allergic reaction to iodinated contrast media?

  • Diphenhydramine

  • Naproxen

  • Cephalexin

  • Hydromorphone

Explanation

Correct Answer:

A. Diphenhydramine

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

Diphenhydramine, also known by the brand name Benadryl, is an antihistamine commonly used to treat allergic reactions. In the case of an allergic reaction to iodinated contrast media, diphenhydramine can be administered to counteract mild to moderate symptoms such as hives, itching, or rashes. It works by blocking the effects of histamine, a chemical released during allergic responses that causes inflammation, itching, and other allergic symptoms.

Here’s why the other options are not appropriate:


B. Naproxen:

Naproxen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used to reduce inflammation and pain. It is not used for allergic reactions and may actually increase the risk of certain complications, such as bleeding or gastrointestinal irritation, especially in patients with certain conditions. Naproxen is not the drug of choice for treating allergic reactions to contrast media.

C. Cephalexin:

Cephalexin is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections. It is not used to treat allergic reactions. In fact, if a patient is allergic to iodinated contrast media, cephalexin would not be indicated unless there was an infection that required treatment with an antibiotic.

D. Hydromorphone:

Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic used for pain management. It is not appropriate for treating allergic reactions and may cause respiratory depression, especially in patients experiencing a severe allergic reaction. This drug would not be used to treat allergic reactions to iodinated contrast media.

Summary:

For a patient experiencing an allergic reaction to iodinated contrast media, Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) would most likely be administered to manage mild allergic symptoms such as itching, hives, or rash. It is an antihistamine and is effective at blocking histamine, which is released during allergic reactions.


2.

In the profession of radiologic technology and education, a clinical instructor has the responsibility of:

  • Teaching students primarily on a one-on-one basis in the clinical setting

  • Teaching students typically through classroom lectures and laboratory activities

  • Teaching responsibilities along with administrative duties in overseeing clinic education

  • Teaching responsibilities as well as overall administrative responsibility for the entire educational program

Explanation

Correct Answer:

A) Teaching students primarily on a one-on-one basis in the clinical setting

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

A clinical instructor in radiologic technology plays a pivotal role in supervising students during their clinical training. This responsibility often involves direct, one-on-one instruction, where the instructor closely monitors the student's performance, provides feedback, and ensures that students are applying the skills and knowledge they learned in the classroom to real-world clinical scenarios. The clinical instructor’s primary role is to guide the student in a clinical environment, helping them develop hands-on proficiency.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

B) Teaching students typically through classroom lectures and laboratory activities

This option describes the role of an academic or didactic instructor, not a clinical instructor. Didactic instructors are responsible for teaching in the classroom and laboratory, whereas clinical instructors focus on the practical application in a clinical setting.

C) Teaching responsibilities along with administrative duties in overseeing clinic education


While clinical instructors may have some administrative duties, their primary focus is teaching and mentoring students in clinical practice. Administrative responsibilities are generally handled by the clinical coordinator or program director.

D) Teaching responsibilities as well as overall administrative responsibility for the entire educational program


This is the role of the program director or clinical coordinator, who oversees the entire educational program. While the clinical instructor contributes to the education process, they are not typically responsible for the overall administration of the entire program.

Summary:

The clinical instructor in radiologic technology primarily teaches students in the clinical setting, providing one-on-one instruction, supervising their clinical tasks, and ensuring they gain hands-on experience essential for their professional development.


3.

All the following are central venous lines except

  • a Port-a-Cath

  • a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)

  • a Swan-Ganz catheter

  • a Salem-sump

Explanation

Correct Answer

D. a Salem-sump

Explanation of the Correct Answer

A Salem-sump is a type of nasogastric (NG) tube used for draining stomach contents or for decompressing the stomach. It is a gastric tube designed for use in the gastrointestinal system, not the venous system. It is not classified as a central venous line because it does not involve access to the bloodstream but rather is inserted into the stomach or gastrointestinal tract.

Why the Other Options Are Correct

A. Port-a-Cath – A Port-a-Cath is a type of central venous catheter (CVC) that is surgically implanted under the skin and provides long-term access to a central vein, typically for chemotherapy or other prolonged intravenous treatments.

B. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) – A PICC is a central venous catheter inserted into a peripheral vein (usually in the arm) and threaded to the central veins near the heart. It provides long-term venous access and is classified as a central venous line.

C. Swan-Ganz catheter – A Swan-Ganz catheter is a specialized type of central venous catheter used to measure cardiac function and pulmonary pressures. It is inserted into a central vein and advanced to the pulmonary artery, making it a central venous line.

Summary

A Salem-sump is not a central venous line; it is a gastric tube used for decompression or drainage of the stomach. The correct answer is D. Salem-sump.


4.

What is the normal range for the international normalized ratio (INR) for reporting prothrombin time (PT)?

  • 0.8-1.2

  • 1.5-2.0

  • 2.0-2.5

  • 2.5-5.0

Explanation

Correct Answer:

A. 0.8-1.2

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

The normal range for the international normalized ratio (INR) for reporting prothrombin time (PT) is typically 0.8-1.2. The INR is a standardized number that helps to measure the time it takes for blood to clot. It is commonly used to monitor patients on anticoagulant therapy, ensuring that the blood's clotting ability remains within a therapeutic range.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. 1.5-2.0:

This range is commonly seen for patients who are on anticoagulant therapy, such as warfarin, but it is not considered the normal range. It is a therapeutic range used for patients being treated to reduce the risk of clotting.

C. 2.0-2.5:

This range is also a therapeutic range for patients undergoing anticoagulant therapy, particularly those at risk for thromboembolic events. It is above the normal range of 0.8-1.2.

D. 2.5-5.0:

This is a higher therapeutic range for patients on anticoagulation therapy, especially in cases where a more aggressive anticoagulant effect is desired (e.g., for patients with mechanical heart valves or certain clotting disorders).

Summary:

The normal range for INR is 0.8-1.2. Higher values are seen in patients on anticoagulant therapy, and the therapeutic range depends on the medical condition being treated.


5.

An example of an NG tube used to feed the patient is a ___________ tube.

  • Dobbhoff

  • Miller Abbott

  • Harris

  • Cantor

Explanation

Correct Answer:

A. Dobbhoff

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

The Dobbhoff tube is a type of nasogastric (NG) tube specifically used for enteral feeding. It is a small-bore tube, often used for long-term feeding because it is more comfortable for patients and can be used for continuous or intermittent feeding. The Dobbhoff tube is typically placed in the stomach or small intestine to provide nutrition to patients who cannot eat by mouth.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. Miller Abbott

The Miller Abbott tube is a large-bore NG tube used primarily for intestinal decompression rather than for feeding. It is often used in cases of bowel obstruction and is designed to relieve pressure in the GI tract, not for feeding purposes.

C. Harris

The Harris tube is another type of NG tube, but it is specifically used for gastric decompression or draining the stomach, not for feeding. It is generally not used for enteral feeding.

D. Cantor

The Cantor tube is used for intestinal decompression as well, similar to the Miller Abbott tube. It is typically used to relieve pressure in the small bowel or to treat conditions such as bowel obstruction, not for feeding.

Summary:

The Dobbhoff tube is a small-bore NG tube specifically designed for enteral feeding, making it the correct choice for feeding a patient. The other tubes listed are used for different purposes such as decompression or drainage rather than feeding.


6.

In what situation is the use of barium contraindicated?

  • Pneumonia

  • Pneumothorax

  • Perforations in the GI tract

  • Hiatal hernia

Explanation

Correct Answer: C. Perforations in the GI tract

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

Barium is a radiopaque contrast medium commonly used in X-ray imaging to help visualize the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. However, the use of barium is contraindicated in cases of perforations in the GI tract. If there is a perforation (a hole) in the wall of the GI tract, barium can leak into the abdominal cavity, leading to peritonitis, a serious and potentially life-threatening infection of the abdominal lining. In such cases, a different type of contrast, such as water-soluble contrast (e.g., iodinated contrast), is preferred, as it can be safely absorbed or eliminated by the body in case of leakage.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Pneumonia

Barium is not contraindicated in pneumonia. Pneumonia affects the lungs and respiratory system, and while barium is used primarily for GI studies, it does not interfere with pneumonia or the lungs directly. Therefore, barium can still be used in imaging studies for other parts of the body, such as the GI tract, even if a patient has pneumonia.

B. Pneumothorax

A pneumothorax (collapsed lung) involves the presence of air in the pleural cavity and is unrelated to the GI tract. The use of barium is not contraindicated in pneumothorax, as barium is typically used for GI studies, and it would not interfere with the treatment of pneumothorax. However, special care should be taken in any patient with respiratory issues when performing any imaging study.

D. Hiatal hernia

A hiatal hernia occurs when part of the stomach pushes through the diaphragm into the chest cavity. This condition does not prevent the use of barium for imaging, and in fact, a barium swallow study is often used to help diagnose and evaluate the extent of a hiatal hernia. Barium can safely be used in this situation as it provides detailed imaging of the esophagus and stomach.

Summary:

Barium is contraindicated in cases of perforations in the GI tract, as leakage of barium into the abdominal cavity can lead to severe complications like peritonitis. In contrast, conditions such as pneumonia, pneumothorax, and hiatal hernia do not pose a risk for barium use, and it can be safely used for imaging the GI tract in these cases.


7.

Which of the following examinations requires barium and air to be instilled into the GI tract via a catheter?

  • Double contrast upper GI series

  • Routine BE

  • Double contrast lower GI series

  • Defecography

Explanation

Correct Answer:

C. Double contrast lower GI series

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

A double contrast lower GI series (also known as a double contrast barium enema) requires both barium and air to be instilled into the gastrointestinal tract via a catheter. In this procedure, the barium is introduced to fill the colon, and then air is introduced to create a double contrast effect. This allows for enhanced imaging of the mucosal lining of the colon and rectum, helping to identify abnormalities such as polyps, tumors, or inflammation. The use of a catheter allows precise control over the delivery of contrast into the colon during the procedure.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Double contrast upper GI series

A double contrast upper GI series involves barium and air, but they are typically ingested by the patient orally, not instilled via a catheter. The patient drinks the barium contrast, and air is introduced to help visualize the mucosa of the stomach and duodenum, but it does not require a catheter for instillation.

B. Routine BE (Barium Enema)

A routine barium enema involves the introduction of barium into the colon, but it does not use air for a double contrast effect. The primary purpose is to visualize the colon with a single contrast medium (barium), which is instilled via a catheter, but air is not introduced for enhanced visualization.

D. Defecography

Defecography is a radiographic examination used to evaluate the function of the rectum and pelvic floor, particularly in the context of defecation. It typically involves using contrast media, but it does not involve the use of both barium and air through a catheter. The contrast is introduced rectally, but air is not commonly used in the same way as in a double contrast lower GI series.

Summary:

A double contrast lower GI series requires both barium and air to be instilled into the GI tract via a catheter to enhance imaging and provide a clearer view of the colon and rectum’s mucosal lining. This technique helps in identifying abnormalities such as tumors and polyps. Other examinations, such as the routine barium enema, upper GI series, and defecography, do not involve the use of both barium and air via a catheter in the same manner.


8.

A syringe contains which of the following parts?

  • Barrel, cannula, hub

  • Tip, barrel, plunger

  • Hub, tip, shaft

  • Tip, plunger, bevel

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B) Tip, barrel, plunger

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

A syringe consists of three main parts:

Tip: The part of the syringe where the needle is attached.

Barrel: The outer casing of the syringe that holds the medication or fluid.

Plunger: The part that is pushed to force the fluid out of the syringe or pulled to draw fluid into the barrel.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A) Barrel, cannula, hub

This option is incorrect because the cannula is the tube part of the needle, not a component of the syringe itself. The hub is part of the needle assembly, not the syringe.

C) Hub, tip, shaft


This is incorrect because the hub and shaft refer to parts of the needle, not the syringe. The syringe itself does not have a shaft or hub.

D) Tip, plunger, bevel


This is incorrect because the bevel is the angled tip of the needle, not part of the syringe. The syringe includes the tip, barrel, and plunger, but not the bevel.

Summary:

A syringe consists of the tip, barrel, and plunger. These parts work together to hold and deliver fluids accurately.


9.

Which of the following statements concerning kidney function is correct?

  • A high creatinine level is associated with a high glomerular filtration rate (GFR) level.

  • High BUN and creatinine levels are associated with a low glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

  • High blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels are indicators that iodine contrast media is acceptable for a patient.

  • Lower-than-normal creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels indicate that the kidneys are filtering insufficient amounts of waste.

Explanation

Correct Answer:

B. High BUN and creatinine levels are associated with a low glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

Explanation of the Correct Answer:

When kidney function is impaired, the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) decreases, leading to the accumulation of waste products like creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) in the bloodstream. These elevated levels are indicative of reduced kidney function and often suggest that the kidneys are not filtering waste efficiently. A low GFR means the kidneys are not removing waste as effectively, and therefore, elevated levels of BUN and creatinine are typically seen in patients with impaired kidney function.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. A high creatinine level is associated with a high glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

This statement is incorrect. A high creatinine level is usually associated with impaired kidney function, which leads to a low GFR. When kidney function is normal or high, creatinine levels are typically lower.

C. High blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels are indicators that iodine contrast media is acceptable for a patient.

This statement is incorrect. High levels of BUN and creatinine are often signs of kidney dysfunction, and this would actually raise concern when considering the use of iodine contrast media, as the kidneys are responsible for clearing the contrast media. For patients with elevated BUN and creatinine levels, caution is needed to avoid further kidney damage.

D. Lower-than-normal creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels indicate that the kidneys are filtering insufficient amounts of waste.

This statement is incorrect. Low levels of creatinine and BUN generally suggest good kidney function, as these waste products are being efficiently filtered out of the bloodstream. It would typically indicate that the kidneys are functioning well, not poorly.

Summary:

Elevated levels of creatinine and BUN are indicative of impaired kidney function, leading to a low GFR. This is an important consideration in evaluating a patient's ability to safely undergo procedures involving iodine contrast media, as the kidneys are responsible for eliminating the contrast from the body. Therefore, high BUN and creatinine levels suggest reduced kidney function, which can complicate the use of contrast media.


10.

Which of the following lab tests are important for evaluating renal function before injection of iodine contrast media?

  • Creatinine

  • Complete Blood Count (CBC)

  • Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)

  • Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)

Explanation

Correct Answer:

A. Creatinine

C. Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)

D. Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)


Explanation of the Correct Answer:

When assessing renal function before administering iodine contrast media, the most important tests are:

Creatinine: A waste product produced by muscles and excreted by the kidneys. Elevated levels of creatinine in the blood can indicate poor kidney function. It is commonly used to assess kidney function and is a key test for evaluating the safety of contrast media injection.

Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR): This test estimates how well the kidneys are filtering blood. A low GFR indicates impaired kidney function, and contrast media should be used with caution in patients with reduced GFR.

Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN): A test that measures the amount of nitrogen in the blood that comes from urea, a waste product filtered by the kidneys. Elevated BUN levels can suggest kidney dysfunction or dehydration, and may indicate the need to assess the risk of contrast media administration.

Why the Other Option is Incorrect:

B. Complete Blood Count (CBC)

While the CBC is important for assessing overall health and detecting infections or anemia, it is not specifically used to assess renal function. It does not provide direct information about kidney function or how the kidneys would handle contrast media.

Summary:

To assess renal function before administering iodine contrast media, the most important tests are creatinine, GFR, and BUN. These tests provide valuable information about the kidney's ability to filter waste and process contrast agents safely.


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Frequently Asked Question

RADR 1309 is a foundational course that introduces students to the profession of radiologic technology, emphasizing patient care, safety practices, communication, and basic imaging procedures.

The course includes radiation protection, body mechanics, patient communication, medical ethics, infection control, and basic radiographic procedures.

Course duration varies by institution, but it typically spans one semester as part of an allied health or radiologic technology program.

With the right preparation and resources, including scenario-based questions and clear rationales, most students find RADR 1309 manageable and rewarding.

Practice regularly with real-world scenarios, review course materials thoroughly, and focus on developing both technical knowledge and patient care skills.

Your subscription gives you access to expertly crafted practice questions, clinical scenarios, detailed answer explanations, and coverage of all key exam areas.