NUR 123 Exam #2 Fall 2025

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Ace Your Test with NUR 123 Exam #2 Fall 2025 Actual Questions and Solutions - Full Set

Free NUR 123 Exam #2 Fall 2025 Questions

1.

Which anesthetic drug is used during surgery because it helps open the airways (bronchodilation) in patients with asthma?

  • A. Midazolam
  • B. Propofol
  • C. Pentobarbital
  • D. Ketamine

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer:
D. Ketamine

Explanation

D. Ketamine
Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic that has bronchodilatory properties, making it particularly useful in patients with asthma or other respiratory conditions. It works by inhibiting the NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate) receptors, leading to sedation and analgesia, while also causing relaxation of the bronchial muscles, which helps in opening the airways. This makes ketamine a preferred choice for asthmatic patients undergoing surgery, as it reduces the risk of bronchospasm and helps maintain airway patency.

2.

Which information should the nurse know is a common effect of ketamine?

  • A. This medication will take approximately 30 minutes to begin working
  • B. Your child does not need to be on a cardiac monitor for the procedure
  • C. Be certain to turn up the lights and stimulate him to wake up as soon as possible in recovery
  • D. Nystagmus and hallucinations are common effects of this medication

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer:
D. Nystagmus and hallucinations are common effects of this medication

Explanation

D. Nystagmus and hallucinations are common effects of this medication
Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic that is often used for sedation and analgesia. Common side effects include nystagmus (involuntary eye movements) and hallucinations. These effects are due to the drug's impact on the central nervous system and its action as an NMDA receptor antagonist. Nystagmus and hallucinations can occur during and after recovery, so nurses should be prepared to manage these symptoms.

3.

A nurse is caring for a patient in post-anesthesia care who is presenting with a temperature of 106.2°F and muscle rigidity. Which nursing intervention(s) should the nurse provide? Select all that apply.

  • A. Apply a non-rebreather at 15L/min as ordered
  • B. Give potassium 40 meq orally STAT
  • C. Administer dantrolene as prescribed
  • D. Apply ice bags to the groin and other areas of the body
  • E. Monitor body temperature

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer:
C. Administer dantrolene as prescribed
D. Apply ice bags to the groin and other areas of the body
E. Monitor body temperature

Explanation

C. Administer dantrolene as prescribed
Dantrolene is the drug of choice for treating malignant hyperthermia (MH), a life-threatening condition that can occur after anesthesia and is characterized by a high fever (above 106°F) and muscle rigidity. Dantrolene works by inhibiting calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells, helping to reduce muscle rigidity and heat production. Prompt administration of dantrolene is essential to treat MH effectively.

D. Apply ice bags to the groin and other areas of the body
Cooling the patient is a critical intervention to reduce body temperature in cases of malignant hyperthermia. Ice bags applied to areas with large blood vessels, such as the groin, axilla, and neck, can help cool the body more effectively. Rapid cooling helps prevent further complications associated with hyperthermia.

E. Monitor body temperature
Continual monitoring of the patient's body temperature is essential to assess the effectiveness of interventions and to ensure that the temperature is decreasing. If the temperature remains elevated, further interventions may be required to prevent complications such as organ damage or cardiovascular instability.

4.

The nurse recognizes that endometrial cancer is a common complication in patients receiving which hormonal therapy?

  • A. Tamoxifen
  • B. Leuprolide
  • C. Cetuximab
  • D. Anastrozole

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer:
A. Tamoxifen

Explanation

A. Tamoxifen
Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) commonly used in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer, particularly in estrogen receptor-positive (ER+) cases. One of the known side effects of tamoxifen is an increased risk of endometrial cancer, as it has estrogen-like effects on the endometrium (lining of the uterus). These estrogenic effects can stimulate the growth of endometrial tissue, which can lead to hyperplasia or cancer over time, especially in postmenopausal women. Patients on tamoxifen should be monitored regularly for signs of uterine cancer, including abnormal bleeding.

5.

Match each type of oral antidiabetic drug with its correct drug class.

A. Metformin
B. Glipizide
C. Repaglinide
D. Pioglitazone

Possible Answers:

  1. Sulfonylurea
  2. Meglitinide
  3. Biguanide
  4. Thiazolidinedione
  • A. Metformin
  • B. Glipizide
  • C. Repaglinide
  • D. Pioglitazone

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer:
  • A. Metformin3. Biguanide
  • B. Glipizide1. Sulfonylurea
  • C. Repaglinide2. Meglitinide
  • D. Pioglitazone4. Thiazolidinedione

Explanation
A. Metformin
3. Biguanide
Metformin is a biguanide class drug used primarily in the treatment of type 2 diabetes. It works by decreasing glucose production in the liver and improving insulin sensitivity.

B. Glipizide1. Sulfonylurea
Glipizide is a sulfonylurea that works by stimulating the pancreas to release more insulin. It is commonly used in type 2 diabetes management.

C. Repaglinide2. Meglitinide
Repaglinide is a meglitinide, which works similarly to sulfonylureas but with a faster onset and shorter duration of action. It stimulates insulin secretion from the pancreas but is typically taken with meals.

D. Pioglitazone4. Thiazolidinedione
Pioglitazone is a thiazolidinedione, which works by improving insulin sensitivity in muscle and adipose tissue and reducing glucose production in the liver. It is used to treat type 2 diabetes.

6.

A nurse is caring for a patient taking maraviroc. Which statement describes how this CCR5 antagonist fights Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)?

  • A. Maraviroc prevents the reproduction of viral DNA and therefore interrupts the cell replication
  • B. Maraviroc prevents HIV from entering your cells by binding to a cysteine chemokine receptor on the cell membrane
  • C. Maraviroc inhibits enzymes and prevents the reproduction of viral DNA preventing cell entry and reproduction of the cell.
  • D. Maraviroc inhibits enzymes needed for HIV replication

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. Maraviroc prevents HIV from entering your cells by binding to a cysteine chemokine receptor on the cell membrane

Explanation:
Maraviroc is a CCR5 antagonist that works by blocking the CCR5 receptor on the surface of T-cells. The CCR5 receptor is one of the co-receptors that HIV uses to enter the host cell. By binding to this receptor, maraviroc prevents HIV from entering the cells and infecting them, thereby reducing the viral load. It does not affect viral DNA replication directly, unlike other antiretroviral agents that target viral enzymes.

7.

The nurse caring for a patient prescribed the antimetabolite methotrexate would monitor which labs? Select all that apply.

  • A. Platelets
  • B. TSH
  • C. White blood cells
  • D. LFTs
  • E. Creatinine

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer:
A. Platelets
C. White blood cells
D. LFTs
E. Creatinine

Explanation

A. Platelets
Methotrexate, an antimetabolite used for various conditions like cancer and autoimmune diseases, can cause bone marrow suppression. This results in a decrease in platelets, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels helps ensure early detection of thrombocytopenia, a possible side effect of methotrexate therapy.

C. White blood cells
Methotrexate can also cause leukopenia, a reduction in white blood cells, which increases the risk of infections. Monitoring WBC counts is crucial to detect any early signs of bone marrow suppression that could result in an increased vulnerability to infections.

D. LFTs
Methotrexate can be hepatotoxic, so liver function tests (LFTs) are important to monitor for any signs of liver damage, such as elevated ALT, AST, or bilirubin. Regular monitoring of LFTs ensures that any hepatic issues are caught early and the dosage can be adjusted if necessary.

E. Creatinine
Methotrexate is excreted through the kidneys, and renal toxicity can occur, particularly with high doses. Monitoring creatinine levels is essential to assess kidney function and prevent nephrotoxicity, especially in patients with pre-existing renal conditions.

8.

A nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a patient. The nurse knows which insulin should not be mixed with any other insulin?

  • A. Isophane Insulin
  • B. Insulin Glargine
  • C. Insulin Lispro
  • D. Regular Insulin

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. Insulin Glargine

Explanation

B. Insulin Glargine
Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that should not be mixed with any other insulin. This is because insulin glargine has a unique formulation and a prolonged, steady release, which could be altered if mixed with other insulins. Mixing it with rapid-acting or intermediate-acting insulins could affect its effectiveness and potentially lead to unpredictable blood glucose control. Therefore, insulin glargine is typically administered alone, either in a separate injection or as a stand-alone dose.

9.

A nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a patient with diabetes. A vial of lispro insulin is labeled U 100. What does this label mean?

  • A. There is 100 units of insulin in the bottle
  • B. There is 1 milliliter of insulin per unit
  • C. There is 100 units of insulin per milliliter
  • D. There is 100 units of insulin per dose

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer:
C. There is 100 units of insulin per milliliter

Explanation

C. There is 100 units of insulin per milliliter
The label "U 100" on a vial of insulin indicates that the concentration of the insulin is 100 units per milliliter (mL). This means that for every milliliter of insulin in the vial, there are 100 units of insulin. This is a standard concentration for most insulin vials, and it is important for the nurse to know this when drawing the correct amount of insulin for the patient’s prescribed dose.

10.

Which adverse effects should a patient taking ondansetron for chemotherapy-induced nausea be instructed to watch for?

  • A. Liver and renal damage
  • B. Headache and diarrhea
  • C. Dry mouth and blurred vision
  • D. Glucose intolerance and hypokalemia

Explanation

Explanation
Correct Answer:
B. Headache and diarrhea

Explanation:
Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist used to prevent nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Common side effects include headache and diarrhea. Headache occurs due to the drug's effect on serotonin receptors in the brain, and diarrhea can result from its gastrointestinal side effects. These are usually mild and manageable but should be monitored by the patient during treatment.

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