Foundations of Nursing (PNR 106)
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Free Foundations of Nursing (PNR 106) Questions
A nurse is educating a patient about dietary restrictions according to Muslim beliefs. Which of the following meats is prohibited in the Muslim diet
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Chicken
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Pork
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Beef
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Lamb
Explanation
The correct answer is B: Pork
Explanation:
In Islamic dietary law, pork is strictly prohibited (haram) according to the teachings of the Quran. Muslims are required to avoid pork and pork products in all forms. The prohibition is based on several verses in the Quran, such as "He has only forbidden you dead meat, blood, the flesh of swine..." (Quran 2:173). This is one of the central aspects of halal dietary practices.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Chicken:
Chicken is considered halal (permissible) as long as it is slaughtered and prepared according to Islamic guidelines. Muslims can eat chicken unless it is contaminated or improperly slaughtered.
C. Beef:
Beef is also considered halal when prepared in accordance with Islamic dietary laws. It must be slaughtered according to specific rituals and guidelines.
D. Lamb:
Lamb is halal as well, provided it is slaughtered following the proper halal procedures. Muslims can eat lamb as long as it is processed according to these guidelines.
Summary:
According to Muslim dietary beliefs, pork is prohibited and considered haram. Muslims can consume other meats like chicken, beef, and lamb, as long as they are slaughtered and prepared in accordance with halal guidelines.
. A nurse is learning about a nursing theory that emphasizes the importance of recognizing and addressing cultural diversity while providing care. The theory also highlights the need to be sensitive to the cultural needs of both the patient and their family. Which nursing theorist developed this theory
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Jean Watson
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Madeleine Leininger
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Hildegard Peplau
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Virginia Henderson
Explanation
The correct answer is B: Madeleine Leininger
Explanation:
Madeleine Leininger is the nursing theorist who developed the concept of Transcultural Nursing, which emphasizes providing care that recognizes cultural diversity and addresses the cultural needs of both the patient and their family. This theory encourages nurses to respect and understand cultural differences to ensure more effective and individualized care.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Jean Watson
Jean Watson is known for her Theory of Human Caring, which focuses on the importance of caring relationships between the nurse and the patient. While her theory emphasizes care, it does not specifically address cultural diversity in the way that Leininger's theory does.
C. Hildegard Peplau
Hildegard Peplau developed the Theory of Interpersonal Relations, which focuses on the nurse-patient relationship and communication. It does not specifically focus on cultural diversity or sensitivity as Leininger's theory does.
D. Virginia Henderson
Virginia Henderson is known for her Need Theory, which identifies 14 basic needs of individuals that nurses assist with. While it is a comprehensive theory, it does not focus specifically on the cultural aspects of patient care as Leininger's transcultural nursing theory does.
Summary:
Madeleine Leininger developed the Transcultural Nursing Theory, which underscores the importance of recognizing cultural diversity in nursing care and being sensitive to the cultural needs of both patients and their families. This theory is essential for nurses who aim to provide holistic, culturally competent care.
A nurse is caring for a patient after a cardiac catheterization. How often should the catheter site be assessed during the first hour
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Every 10 to 15 minutes
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Every 30 minutes
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Every hour
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Every 6 hours
Explanation
The correct answer is A: Every 10 to 15 minutes
Explanation:
After a cardiac catheterization, it is essential to monitor the catheter site closely for signs of bleeding, hematoma formation, or infection. During the first hour, the catheter site should be assessed every 10 to 15 minutes to ensure early detection of any complications. This frequent monitoring helps ensure patient safety and enables prompt intervention if any issues arise.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Every 30 minutes:
Assessing every 30 minutes is too infrequent during the first hour after the procedure. The initial post-procedure period is critical, and frequent assessments (every 10 to 15 minutes) are necessary to monitor for immediate complications.
C. Every hour:
Assessing the site every hour is too infrequent in the immediate post-procedure period. The first hour is the most critical for detecting complications, so assessments should be done more frequently (every 10 to 15 minutes).
D. Every 6 hours:
Assessing the site every 6 hours is appropriate after the initial post-procedure period has passed. However, in the first hour, more frequent monitoring is required for patient safety.
Summary:
After a cardiac catheterization, the catheter site should be assessed every 10 to 15 minutes during the first hour to detect any potential complications such as bleeding or hematoma formation. Temperature checks can typically be done every 6 hours once the immediate post-procedure monitoring period has passed.
A nurse is teaching about the subjective experience that explains one's relationship to the wholeness of the physical and non-physical world and the meaning of one's life. Which term matches this description
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Faith
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Spirituality
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Religion
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Culture
Explanation
The correct answer is B: Spirituality
Explanation:
Spirituality is the personal, subjective experience that connects individuals to the physical and non-physical world, encompassing a sense of meaning, purpose, and connection. It can involve a deep sense of the "breath of life," focusing on personal beliefs and the essence of existence.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Faith:
Faith is generally a belief in a higher power or the acceptance of certain doctrines or principles. It can be part of spirituality, but it is more specific to beliefs rather than the overall experience of connection to life.
C. Religion:
Religion refers to an organized system of beliefs and practices related to worship, typically involving rituals and community. While religion can play a role in spirituality, it is more structured and external than the subjective experience of spirituality.
D. Culture:
Culture encompasses shared customs, traditions, and values of a group. While it may influence spirituality, it is not specifically about the personal, subjective experience of meaning and purpose in life.
Summary:
The term that best describes the subjective experience explaining one's relationship to life and the meaning of existence is spirituality.
A nurse is working with a Hispanic patient and overhears a colleague say, "All Hispanics like hot peppers." Which of the following best describes this statement
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Cultural sensitivity
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Stereotype
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Cultural relativism
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Cultural competence
Explanation
The correct answer is B: Stereotype
Explanation:
The statement "All Hispanics like hot peppers" is an example of a stereotype. A stereotype is a generalized and often oversimplified belief or opinion about a group of people, which is inaccurately applied to individuals. In this case, the statement assumes that all individuals from a particular cultural group have the same preference for food, which is not necessarily true and fails to acknowledge individual differences.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Cultural sensitivity
Cultural sensitivity involves being aware of and respecting cultural differences. The statement does not reflect sensitivity to individual preferences or diversity within the Hispanic community, so it does not demonstrate cultural sensitivity.
C. Cultural relativism
Cultural relativism refers to understanding and evaluating a culture based on its own values and norms, rather than judging it using the standards of another culture. The statement is a broad generalization, not an effort to understand cultural values on their own terms.
D. Cultural competence
Cultural competence involves the ability to understand, communicate with, and effectively interact with people across cultures. The statement reflects a lack of cultural competence as it makes an unfounded assumption about a cultural group, without considering individual variation.
Summary:
The statement "All Hispanics like hot peppers" is a stereotype because it inaccurately applies a general belief about a group to individuals, without recognizing individual differences. This is a key example of why it’s important for healthcare providers to avoid stereotypes and practice cultural competence.
A nurse is reviewing the medical history of an African American patient who recently had surgery. The patient is concerned about the possibility of developing abnormal scarring. Which type of abnormal scarring is the patient at higher risk for, given their ethnicity
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Hypertrophic scars
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Keloid formation
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Scarring alopecia
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Contractures
Explanation
The correct answer is B: Keloid formation
Explanation:
Keloid formation is more common in African American individuals. A keloid is a type of abnormal scar that grows beyond the boundaries of the original wound and can become raised, thickened, and sometimes painful. The tendency to develop keloids is hereditary and more prevalent in people of African descent.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Hypertrophic scars
While hypertrophic scars are raised and often result from wounds, they remain within the original boundaries of the injury and do not grow beyond them. Hypertrophic scars are not as commonly associated with African American patients as keloid formation is.
C. Scarring alopecia
Scarring alopecia is a type of hair loss that occurs when inflammation destroys hair follicles. It is not specifically associated with keloid formation or common in African Americans.
D. Contractures
Contractures refer to the permanent tightening of the skin or muscles around a joint, often due to severe burns or trauma. While they can occur in any ethnicity, they are not directly linked to keloid formation or more common in African American individuals.
Summary:
Keloid formation is more common in African Americans. Keloids are abnormal, raised scars that can grow beyond the original wound, and they are particularly more prevalent in people of African descent. It’s important for nurses to recognize this risk when caring for patients of different ethnic backgrounds.
A nurse is educating a patient with a colostomy about foods that can cause obstructions. Which of the following foods should the nurse advise the patient to avoid
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Popcorn
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Plain biscuits
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White bread,
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pasta
Explanation
The correct answer is A: Popcorn
Explanation:
To prevent colostomy obstructions, patients should avoid foods that are high in fiber or have tough, undigestible components. Popcorn is particularly risky because the kernels can be difficult to digest and can block the stoma if not chewed thoroughly. Foods like raw fruits and vegetables, nuts, seeds, and tough meats are also risky and should be avoided. While plain biscuits, white bread, and pasta are soft and easier to digest, popcorn can lead to a blockage due to its tough kernels.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Plain biscuits:
Plain biscuits are generally soft and easy to digest. These do not pose a risk for obstruction when eaten in moderation and can be safely consumed by most colostomy patients.
C. White bread:
White bread is low in fiber and soft, making it easy to digest. It does not typically cause obstruction and is safe for colostomy patients to eat.
D. Pasta:
Pasta is also soft and easy to digest, provided it is cooked thoroughly. It does not pose a risk for obstruction and can be safely included in the diet of a colostomy patient.
Summary:
Popcorn is the food to avoid for colostomy patients as it has tough kernels that can cause obstruction. Plain biscuits, white bread, and pasta are soft and easy to digest, making them safe to consume in moderation. Education on avoiding high-risk foods, such as popcorn and other foods with tough or hard-to-digest components, is essential in colostomy care.
A nurse is preparing to perform nasopharyngeal suctioning on a patient who has thick respiratory secretions. What is the appropriate suction pressure to use
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40-60 mm Hg
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80-120 mm Hg
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130-160 mm Hg
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170-200 mm Hg
Explanation
Explanation:
When performing nasopharyngeal suctioning, the recommended suction pressure should be between 80 and 120 mm Hg to effectively remove secretions while minimizing trauma to the mucosa. Using a pressure lower than 80 mm Hg may be ineffective in clearing secretions, while a pressure higher than 120 mm Hg increases the risk of mucosal damage, hypoxia, and irritation of the airway.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. 40-60 mm Hg:
This pressure is too low to effectively remove secretions. Insufficient suction pressure can lead to retained mucus, which may cause airway obstruction, ineffective oxygenation, and an increased risk of infection.
Pressures above 120 mm Hg may cause excessive trauma to the delicate mucosal tissues of the nasopharynx. This can lead to irritation, bleeding, and discomfort for the patient. Higher suction pressures can also increase the risk of hypoxia by removing too much oxygen along with secretions.
D. 170-200 mm Hg:
This suction level is dangerously high for nasopharyngeal suctioning. Excessive negative pressure can cause significant airway trauma, mucosal damage, and even vagal stimulation, which may lead to bradycardia and a drop in blood pressure.
Summary:
When performing nasopharyngeal suctioning, the correct suction pressure should be 80-120 mm Hg to effectively remove secretions without causing mucosal injury. Pressures below 80 mm Hg are insufficient for secretion clearance, while pressures above 120 mm Hg increase the risk of airway damage and hypoxia. Proper technique, including limiting suction duration to 10-15 seconds per pass, allowing for rest periods, and monitoring oxygenation, ensures safe and effective suctioning.
A nurse is assessing a patient who is hyperventilating. What is the acid-base imbalance most likely caused by hyperventilation
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Respiratory acidosis
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Respiratory alkalosis
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Metabolic acidosis
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Metabolic alkalosis
Explanation
The correct answer is B: Respiratory alkalosis
Explanation:
Respiratory alkalosis occurs when a person hyperventilates, which leads to excessive exhalation of carbon dioxide (CO2). The reduction in CO2 causes a decrease in carbonic acid in the blood, raising the blood's pH and making it more alkaline. Hyperventilation can be caused by anxiety, fever, pain, or respiratory disorders, among other factors. Symptoms of respiratory alkalosis include lightheadedness, dizziness, tingling in the extremities, and confusion.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Respiratory acidosis:
Respiratory acidosis is caused by hypoventilation or impaired ventilation, leading to an accumulation of CO2 in the blood. This can occur in conditions such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), asthma, or respiratory depression. It results in a lower pH (more acidic blood), which is the opposite of respiratory alkalosis.
C. Metabolic acidosis:
Metabolic acidosis occurs due to an accumulation of acid or a loss of bicarbonate in the body, often due to conditions like kidney failure, diabetic ketoacidosis, or severe diarrhea. It is not related to hyperventilation.
D. Metabolic alkalosis:
Metabolic alkalosis is caused by an excess of bicarbonate or a loss of acid from the body, often due to vomiting, diuretic use, or excessive antacid consumption. It is not related to hyperventilation.
Summary:
Respiratory alkalosis is the acid-base imbalance caused by hyperventilation, resulting in a loss of CO2 and an increase in blood pH. Monitoring and addressing the underlying cause of hyperventilation is important in managing this condition.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has recently experienced the death of a spouse. During a conversation with the nurse, the patient begins to cry. What would be an appropriate response from the nurse
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Tell the patient that everything will be okay
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Hand a tissue to the patient and offer comfort
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Change the subject to something more positive
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Tell the patient to stop crying and stay strong
Explanation
The correct answer is B: Hand a tissue to the patient and offer comfort
Explanation:
In situations where a patient is grieving, it is important to offer empathy and emotional support. Handing a tissue to the patient shows that the nurse recognizes the patient's emotions and is offering comfort in a non-verbal way. This approach acknowledges the patient’s grief and allows the nurse to provide emotional support while respecting the patient’s feelings.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Tell the patient that everything will be okay
While it may be well-intentioned, this response may come off as dismissive of the patient's pain. Grief is a complex emotion, and telling someone that "everything will be okay" can invalidate their feelings in a moment of deep sorrow.
C. Change the subject to something more positive
This option is not appropriate because it avoids the patient’s current emotions. Trying to redirect the conversation to something positive may make the patient feel unheard or misunderstood during a vulnerable time.
D. Tell the patient to stop crying and stay strong
Telling the patient to stop crying or stay strong is dismissive of the grieving process. It is essential for individuals to express their emotions, and this response may unintentionally discourage the patient from processing their grief.
Summary:
When a patient begins to cry due to a recent loss, an appropriate response from the nurse is to hand the patient a tissue and offer comfort. This shows empathy and respect for the patient's emotional state, encouraging open emotional expression.
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