Chamberlain University W8 NR302 Health Assessment I Exam 3 .
Access The Exact Questions for Chamberlain University W8 NR302 Health Assessment I Exam 3 .
💯 100% Pass Rate guaranteed
🗓️ Unlock for 1 Month
Rated 4.8/5 from over 1000+ reviews
- Unlimited Exact Practice Test Questions
- Trusted By 200 Million Students and Professors
What’s Included:
- Unlock Actual Exam Questions and Answers for Chamberlain University W8 NR302 Health Assessment I Exam 3 . on monthly basis
- Well-structured questions covering all topics, accompanied by organized images.
- Learn from mistakes with detailed answer explanations.
- Easy To understand explanations for all students.
Free Chamberlain University W8 NR302 Health Assessment I Exam 3 . Questions
What does the S1 heart sound indicate?
-
A systolic heart murmur
-
Closure of the aortic valve
-
The beginning of diastole
-
Closure of the mitral valve
Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Closure of the mitral valve
The S1 heart sound, often described as the "lub" in "lub-dub," is produced by the closure of the mitral (bicuspid) and tricuspid valves at the beginning of ventricular systole. It marks the start of systole, not diastole. The mitral valve closure is the predominant component of S1 and is best heard at the apex of the heart. Understanding S1 is foundational to cardiac auscultation and identifying abnormal heart sounds.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. A systolic heart murmur S1 is a normal heart sound representing valve closure, not a murmur. Murmurs are abnormal turbulent blood flow sounds that may occur during systole but are distinctly different from S1.
B. Closure of the aortic valve Closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves produces the S2 heart sound, the "dub" component, which marks the end of systole and the beginning of diastole.
C. The beginning of diastole S1 marks the beginning of systole, not diastole. Diastole begins with the S2 sound, which occurs when the semilunar valves close after ventricular ejection is complete.
What should the nurse feel when placing their hands on the posterior lateral chest during a deep breath?
- Pain during chest expansion
- Symmetrical rise and fall of the rib cage
- Asymmetrical rise and fall of the rib cage
- No movement of the rib cage
Explanation
Correct Answer: B) Symmetrical rise and fall of the rib cage
When assessing chest excursion by placing hands on the posterior lateral chest during a deep breath, the nurse should normally feel a symmetrical rise and fall of the rib cage, indicating equal bilateral lung expansion. This technique assesses the adequacy and symmetry of respiratory movement.
Asymmetrical chest expansion is an abnormal finding that may suggest conditions such as pneumothorax, pleural effusion, or atelectasis on the affected side. Pain during chest expansion may indicate pleuritis or rib fractures. No movement of the rib cage would suggest severe respiratory compromise or complete airway obstruction.
A nurse is planning to assess the point of maximal impulse (PMI). What client position should the nurse use to enhance palpation of the PMI?
- Prone with the arms overhead
- Trendelenburg position
- Supine and left lateral positions
- Sitting upright with arms crossed
Explanation
Correct Answer: C) Supine and left lateral positions
The PMI is best palpated with the client in the supine position or in the left lateral decubitus (left side-lying) position. The left lateral position brings the heart closer to the anterior chest wall, making the apical impulse easier to locate and palpate, particularly in clients where it may not be easily felt in the supine position. The prone position would make cardiac palpation impossible. The Trendelenburg position is used for hypotension management. Sitting upright with arms crossed does not facilitate optimal cardiac palpation.
A nurse is reviewing a client's health history and identifies 3 modifiable risk factors for cardiovascular disease. Select three modifiable risk factors.
-
Family history of cardiovascular disease
-
Fitness level
-
Age
-
Tobacco use
-
Diet
Explanation
Modifiable risk factors are those that can be changed through lifestyle choices, medications, or behavioral interventions. Fitness level can be improved through regular physical activity, which reduces cardiovascular risk by lowering blood pressure, improving lipid profiles, and maintaining healthy body weight. Tobacco use is a major modifiable cardiovascular risk factor because smoking directly damages blood vessels, promotes atherosclerosis, and increases clotting risk. Diet is modifiable through food choices and directly impacts cholesterol levels, blood pressure, blood glucose, and body weight, all of which influence cardiovascular disease risk.
Why Other Options are Incorrect:
A. Family history of cardiovascular disease Family history is a non-modifiable risk factor. A client cannot change their genetic predisposition or the cardiovascular history of their biological relatives, regardless of lifestyle modifications.
C. Age Age is a non-modifiable risk factor. Cardiovascular disease risk increases with advancing age due to natural physiological changes in the vasculature and heart, and this cannot be altered through any intervention.
Findings: Client reports not hearing well Clear drainage coming from the ears Pinna and tragus feel firm Crusts and scaling on the ear Auricles are symmetrical
- Client reports not hearing well
- Clear drainage coming from the ears
- Pinna and tragus feel firm
- Crusts and scaling on the ear
- Auricles are symmetrical
Explanation
Correct Answer:
Client reports not hearing well — Requires Follow-Up Hearing loss is not a normal finding and may indicate infection, cerumen impaction, nerve damage, or other pathology requiring further assessment and intervention.
Clear drainage coming from the ears — Requires Follow-Up Clear drainage from the ear can indicate cerebrospinal fluid leakage, infection, or perforation of the tympanic membrane, all of which require prompt clinical evaluation.
Pinna and tragus feel firm — Does Not Require Follow-Up A firm pinna and tragus are normal anatomical findings. Concern arises only when the area is tender or painful, which may indicate otitis externa.
Crusts and scaling on the ear — Requires Follow-Up Crusting and scaling can indicate dermatological conditions, infection, or skin breakdown and should be further assessed and documented.
Auricles are symmetrical — Does Not Require Follow-Up Symmetrical auricles are a normal expected finding and require no further follow-up.
The nurse interviews the caregiver of an infant. Which statement is strongly linked to the increased risk of congenital heart defects in the infant?
-
"My child's father has high blood pressure and takes medication."
-
"My child's sibling was born with a heart problem."
-
"My child's grandparent had a stroke from a blood clot."
-
"My child's aunt developed coronary artery disease in adulthood."
Explanation
Correct Answer:
(B) "My child's sibling was born with a heart problem"
A family history of congenital heart defects in a first-degree relative, such as a sibling, is one of the strongest known risk factors for congenital heart disease in a newborn. Congenital heart defects have a significant genetic component, and having an affected sibling increases the recurrence risk considerably compared to the general population. This finding warrants close cardiac monitoring and evaluation of the infant.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. "My child's father has high blood pressure and takes medication." Hypertension is an acquired cardiovascular condition in adults and is not directly linked to an increased risk of structural congenital heart defects in offspring.
C. "My child's grandparent had a stroke from a blood clot." A grandparent's thromboembolic stroke is a distant family history finding and is not strongly associated with congenital cardiac malformations in a grandchild.
D. "My child's aunt developed coronary artery disease in adulthood." Coronary artery disease is an acquired, lifestyle-related condition that develops over decades and is not a congenital structural defect. An aunt's adult-onset CAD does not significantly elevate an infant's risk for congenital heart disease.
When auscultating the aortic valve, on which landmark should the nurse place the stethoscope?
-
The third intercostal space left of the sternal border
-
Fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line
-
Second intercostal space left of the sternal border
-
Second intercostal space right of the sternal border
Explanation
Correct Answer: (D) Second intercostal space right of the sternal border
The aortic valve is best auscultated at the second intercostal space along the right sternal border. This is one of the two base landmarks of the heart and is where sounds produced by the aortic valve, including the aortic component of S2 and aortic murmurs such as aortic stenosis, are transmitted most clearly. Accurate landmark identification is essential for detecting valve-specific pathology during cardiac auscultation.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. The third intercostal space left of the sternal border The third intercostal space at the left sternal border is known as Erb's point, where both S1 and S2 can be heard equally well. It is not the designated landmark for isolated aortic valve auscultation.
B. Fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line This is the location of the cardiac apex and the point of maximum impulse, where the mitral valve is best auscultated. It is the correct site for mitral valve assessment, not aortic.
C. Second intercostal space left of the sternal border The second intercostal space at the left sternal border is the auscultation site for the pulmonic valve, not the aortic valve. Though both are base landmarks, they are on opposite sides of the sternum.
-
Compare to baseline and assess for signs of infection.
-
Repeat the temperature in two hours.
-
Notify the provider immediately of a critical fever.
-
Document the temperature as normal and take no further action.
Explanation
Correct Answer: (A) Compare to baseline and assess for signs of infection.
In older adults, the baseline body temperature is often lower than in younger adults, and the febrile response to infection may be blunted. A temperature of 100.8°F may represent a significantly elevated reading relative to an older client's individual baseline. The most appropriate nursing action is to compare this temperature to the client's established baseline and conduct a thorough assessment for signs and symptoms of infection such as altered mental status, dysuria, productive cough, or wound changes, which are common infection presentations in older adults.
Why the other options are incorrect:
B. Repeat the temperature in two hours — Simply repeating the temperature without assessing the client delays identification and treatment of a potential infection. In older adults, infections can deteriorate rapidly to sepsis, making prompt assessment essential rather than watchful waiting.
C. Notify the provider immediately of a critical fever — A temperature of 100.8°F is a low-grade fever and does not constitute a critical fever requiring immediate provider notification without first assessing the client. Critical fever thresholds are typically considered at 103°F or higher. Assessment should precede notification.
D. Document the temperature as normal and take no further action — A temperature of 100.8°F is above the normal range and is not normal. Documenting it as normal and taking no action represents a failure to recognize an abnormal finding and could result in a missed infection diagnosis in a vulnerable older adult.
During auscultation, which finding is supportive of left-sided atelectasis?
- Vesicular breath sounds with equal intensity throughout
- Loud bronchial breath sounds over the left lower lobe
- High-pitched wheezing over both lower lobes
- Decreased breath sounds over the affected area
Explanation
Correct Answer: D) Decreased breath sounds over the affected area
Atelectasis refers to the collapse or incomplete expansion of lung tissue, which results in reduced or absent airflow to the affected area. On auscultation, this presents as decreased or absent breath sounds over the collapsed region, as air is not moving through the affected lung segment. Equal vesicular sounds indicate normal bilateral ventilation. Bronchial sounds over the lower lobe suggest consolidation as in pneumonia. Bilateral wheezing suggests diffuse airway obstruction as in asthma.
A nurse cares for a group of clients with respiratory conditions. Which client should the nurse see first?
-
A client with asthma who requests a refill of their inhaler before discharge
-
A client with a pneumothorax with absent lung sounds on the left side
-
A client with emphysema who is on 2 L/min of oxygen via nasal cannula
-
A client with pneumonia who was just started on intravenous antibiotics
Explanation
Correct Answer: (B) A client with a pneumothorax with absent lung sounds on the left side
Absent lung sounds on one side in a client with pneumothorax is a critical finding indicating a large or tension pneumothorax, which is a life-threatening emergency. Complete absence of breath sounds suggests total lung collapse on the affected side with potential mediastinal shift. A tension pneumothorax can rapidly cause cardiovascular collapse and death if not immediately decompressed. This client requires urgent assessment and intervention and takes absolute priority over all other clients.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A. A client with asthma who requests a refill of their inhaler before discharge A request for an inhaler refill prior to discharge is a routine, non-urgent task that does not indicate acute respiratory compromise. This can be addressed after seeing the priority client.
C. A client with emphysema who is on 2 L/min of oxygen via nasal cannula A client with emphysema receiving low-flow supplemental oxygen is a stable, expected clinical situation. Low-flow oxygen is the standard delivery approach for COPD clients to avoid suppressing the hypoxic respiratory drive.
D. A client with pneumonia who was just started on intravenous antibiotics A client newly started on IV antibiotics for pneumonia is receiving active treatment and is in a stable, planned care situation. This does not represent an acute deterioration requiring priority assessment.
How to Order
Select Your Exam
Click on your desired exam to open its dedicated page with resources like practice questions, flashcards, and study guides.Choose what to focus on, Your selected exam is saved for quick access Once you log in.
Subscribe
Hit the Subscribe button on the platform. With your subscription, you will enjoy unlimited access to all practice questions and resources for a full 1-month period. After the month has elapsed, you can choose to resubscribe to continue benefiting from our comprehensive exam preparation tools and resources.
Pay and unlock the practice Questions
Once your payment is processed, you’ll immediately unlock access to all practice questions tailored to your selected exam for 1 month .