NCN1530 Adult Health Nursing Exam - North Palm College of Nursing

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Ace Your Test with NCN1530 Adult Health Nursing Midterm Exam - North Palm College of Nursing Actual Questions and Solutions - Full Set

Free NCN1530 Adult Health Nursing Exam - North Palm College of Nursing Questions

1.

After teaching a client about advance directives, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statement indicates that the client correctly understands the teaching?

  • An advance directive will keep my children from selling my home when I'm old.

  • An advance directive will be completed as soon as I'm incapacitated and can't think for myself.

  • An advance directive will specify what I want done when I can no longer make decisions about health care.

  • An advance directive will allow me to keep my money out of the reach of my family.

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (C) An advance directive will specify what I want done when I can no longer make decisions about health care.

An advance directive is a legal document that outlines a person's wishes regarding medical treatment and healthcare decisions in the event they become unable to communicate or make decisions for themselves. It may include a living will, durable power of attorney for healthcare, or do-not-resuscitate orders. This statement accurately reflects the purpose and function of an advance directive.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A. An advance directive will keep my children from selling my home when I'm old — This describes a legal or estate planning document, not a healthcare advance directive. Advance directives pertain solely to medical decision-making.

B. An advance directive will be completed as soon as I'm incapacitated and can't think for myself — Advance directives must be completed while the person still has decision-making capacity. They cannot be created after incapacitation has occurred.

D. An advance directive will allow me to keep my money out of the reach of my family — This describes a financial or estate planning tool such as a trust, not a healthcare advance directive.

2.

What is the term for an inadequate supply of oxygen to tissues and organs despite adequate blood flow?

  • Hypoxemia

  • Hypoxia

  • Ischemia

  • Anoxia

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (B) Hypoxia

Hypoxia refers to deficient oxygen supply at the tissue and cellular level despite potentially adequate blood flow. It can result from hypoxemia, anemia, circulatory dysfunction, or impaired cellular oxygen utilization. The key distinguishing feature is that blood may be flowing normally, but the tissues are not receiving sufficient oxygen to meet metabolic demands.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A. Hypoxemia — Hypoxemia specifically refers to low oxygen levels in the arterial blood (low PaO2). It is a cause of hypoxia but is not the same condition. Hypoxemia refers to blood oxygen content, while hypoxia refers to tissue-level oxygen deficiency.

C. Ischemia — Ischemia refers to inadequate blood flow to tissues, which results in both oxygen and nutrient deprivation. The question specifies adequate blood flow, which rules out ischemia.

D. Anoxia — Anoxia refers to a complete absence of oxygen in the tissues, which is the extreme end of oxygen deprivation. The question describes inadequate supply, not total absence, making hypoxia the more precise and correct term.

3.

A nurse is preparing to administer a live attenuated vaccine. Which patient would be most at risk for complications from this vaccine?

  • A 3-month-old infant

  • A 25-year-old with a history of asthma

  • A 45-year-old receiving immunosuppressive therapy

  • A 60-year-old with hypertension

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (C) A 45-year-old receiving immunosuppressive therapy

Live attenuated vaccines contain weakened but viable organisms capable of replicating in the host to generate immunity. In immunocompromised individuals, such as those on corticosteroids, chemotherapy, or biologic agents, the attenuated organism can replicate uncontrollably and cause vaccine-strain disease. This makes immunosuppressed patients the highest-risk group for serious complications from live vaccines.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A. A 3-month-old infant — Most live vaccines are not administered at three months of age due to schedule timing, but the immune immaturity alone does not make this infant the highest-risk patient compared to someone actively immunosuppressed.

B. A 25-year-old with a history of asthma — Asthma, when well-controlled, is not a contraindication to live vaccines. This patient does not have a compromised immune system.

D. A 60-year-old with hypertension — Hypertension does not affect immune competence. This patient can generally receive live vaccines without elevated risk of vaccine-strain complications.

4.

A patient presents with a rash, fever, and swollen lymph nodes after being bitten by a tick. What should the nurse suspect?

  • Lyme disease

  • Allergic reaction

  • Autoimmune disorder

  • Viral infection

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (A) Lyme disease

Lyme disease is caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi transmitted through the bite of an infected Ixodes tick. The classic triad of a characteristic expanding rash (erythema migrans), fever, and lymphadenopathy following a tick bite is the hallmark presentation of early Lyme disease and should be the primary suspicion in this clinical scenario.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

B. Allergic reaction — Allergic reactions to tick bites may cause localized redness or hives, but systemic features like fever and lymphadenopathy point strongly toward an infectious etiology rather than an allergic one.

C. Autoimmune disorder — Autoimmune conditions develop through internal immune dysregulation and are not triggered acutely by a tick bite. The history of tick exposure makes an infectious cause far more likely.

D. Viral infection — While viral illnesses can cause fever and lymphadenopathy, the direct association with a tick bite and the characteristic rash together make Lyme disease the most specific and appropriate suspicion.

5.

A nurse is assessing a patient with suspected sepsis. Which finding is most indicative of septic shock?

  • Bradycardia and hypotension

  • Tachycardia and hypotension

  • Fever and hypoglycemia

  • Leukopenia and hypertension

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (B) Tachycardia and hypotension

Septic shock is characterized by the body's dysregulated response to infection leading to circulatory failure. Tachycardia occurs as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output, while hypotension reflects the severe vasodilation and vascular leak caused by systemic inflammation and mediator release.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A. Bradycardia and hypotension — Bradycardia is not a hallmark of septic shock; the cardiovascular response in sepsis is increased heart rate, not decreased.

C. Fever and hypoglycemia — While fever is common in sepsis, hypoglycemia alone does not define septic shock. Hyperglycemia is actually more commonly associated with the stress response in sepsis.

D. Leukopenia and hypertension — Hypertension is inconsistent with septic shock, which involves profound vasodilation and low blood pressure. Leukopenia can occur but is not the defining indicator of shock.

6.

Which lab value indicates a possible respiratory acidosis?

  • pH of 7.48

  • PaCO2 of 55 mmHg

  • HCO3 of 22 mEq/L

  • PaO2 of 90 mmHg

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (B) PaCO2 of 55 mmHg.

Respiratory acidosis occurs when there is inadequate ventilation leading to carbon dioxide retention in the bloodstream, causing the pH to fall below 7.35. A PaCO2 of 55 mmHg is elevated above the normal range of 35 to 45 mmHg, indicating hypercapnia from hypoventilation or impaired gas exchange. This excess carbon dioxide combines with water to form carbonic acid, lowering the blood pH and resulting in respiratory acidosis. An elevated PaCO2 is the hallmark laboratory indicator of this acid-base disturbance.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. A pH of 7.48 is above the normal range of 7.35 to 7.45, indicating alkalosis rather than acidosis. This value is consistent with either respiratory alkalosis from hyperventilation or metabolic alkalosis, not respiratory acidosis.

C. An HCO3 of 22 mEq/L falls within the normal bicarbonate range of 22 to 26 mEq/L. This value alone does not indicate an acid-base disturbance, and bicarbonate is a metabolic rather than a respiratory parameter in arterial blood gas interpretation.

D. A PaO2 of 90 mmHg is within the normal range of 80 to 100 mmHg and reflects adequate oxygenation. PaO2 reflects oxygen levels in the blood rather than carbon dioxide retention and does not indicate respiratory acidosis.

7.

Which assessments should the nurse perform for a patient with suspected systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? Select All That Apply.

  • Skin assessment for rashes

  • Joint assessment for swelling and pain

  • Neurological assessment for cognitive changes

  • Respiratory assessment for pleuritic pain

  • Cardiac assessment for arrhythmias

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answers: (A) Skin assessment for rashes, (B) Joint assessment for swelling and pain, (C) Neurological assessment for cognitive changes, (D) Respiratory assessment for pleuritic pain, and (E) Cardiac assessment for arrhythmias

SLE is a systemic autoimmune disease that can affect virtually every organ system. The classic butterfly (malar) rash across the cheeks and nose is a hallmark skin finding. Arthritis with joint swelling and pain is one of the most common manifestations. Neuropsychiatric lupus can present with cognitive changes, headaches, and seizures. Pleuritis causing sharp chest pain on breathing reflects pulmonary involvement. Cardiac involvement, including pericarditis and arrhythmias, is also well-documented in SLE. All five assessments are therefore clinically indicated.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

All options are correct in this question. SLE is a multisystem disease, and comprehensive head-to-toe assessment across all the listed body systems is both appropriate and necessary for suspected or confirmed SLE.

8.

Which nursing intervention is essential for maintaining optimal tissue perfusion in a bedridden patient?

  • Elevating the legs

  • Encouraging deep breathing exercises

  • Administering pain medication

  • Frequent position changes

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (D) Frequent position changes

Bedridden patients are at high risk for impaired tissue perfusion due to sustained pressure on dependent body areas, which compresses capillaries and cuts off blood supply. Frequent repositioning, typically every two hours, redistributes pressure, restores blood flow to compressed tissues, and prevents pressure injury and deep vein thrombosis. It is the cornerstone intervention for maintaining perfusion in immobile patients.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

A. Elevating the legs — Leg elevation promotes venous return and may help in specific conditions like venous insufficiency, but it is not the primary and most broadly essential intervention for overall tissue perfusion in all bedridden patients.

B. Encouraging deep breathing exercises — Deep breathing exercises support respiratory function and prevent atelectasis and pneumonia, but they do not directly address tissue perfusion at the skin and peripheral tissue level in bedridden patients.

C. Administering pain medication — Pain management improves comfort and may indirectly support mobility and cooperation with care, but it is not an independent intervention for maintaining tissue perfusion.

9.

Which of the following nursing tasks are appropriate for delegation to an LPN (Licensed Practical Nurse) when caring for patients with respiratory issues? Select All That Apply.

  • Administering medications via nebulizer

  • Performing a full respiratory assessment

  • Assisting with patient education on asthma management

  • Monitoring and documenting oxygen saturation levels

  • Providing suctioning for a patient with a tracheostomy

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answers: (A) Administering medications via nebulizer, (D) Monitoring and documenting oxygen saturation levels, and (E) Providing suctioning for a patient with a tracheostomy

LPNs are trained and licensed to administer medications including nebulized treatments under the supervision of an RN or physician. Monitoring and documenting oxygen saturation is a routine observational task well within LPN scope of practice. Tracheostomy suctioning is a technical skill that LPNs are trained to perform as part of their clinical competencies.

Why Other Options are Incorrect:

B. Performing a full respiratory assessment — Comprehensive physical assessment, including auscultation, interpretation of breath sounds, and clinical decision-making, is within the RN scope of practice. LPNs can collect data and report observations but cannot perform and independently document a full assessment.

C. Assisting with patient education on asthma management — While LPNs can reinforce previously taught information, developing and delivering comprehensive patient education on disease management requires RN-level clinical judgment and scope. In most practice settings, this responsibility remains with the RN.

10.

A nurse is caring for a patient with dementia who becomes agitated during care. What is the best approach for the nurse to use?

  • Speak firmly to the patient to gain compliance.

  • Restrain the patient for safety.

  • Use a calm, soothing voice and redirect the patient.

  • Ignore the behavior and proceed with care.

Explanation

Explanation:

Correct Answer: (C) Use a calm, soothing voice and redirect the patient.

Agitation in patients with dementia is most effectively managed through non-pharmacological, person-centered de-escalation techniques. Speaking in a calm, soothing voice reduces the patient's sense of threat and anxiety, while gentle redirection shifts their attention away from the source of distress and toward something more neutral or comforting. This approach respects the patient's dignity, avoids escalating the behavioral response, and is consistent with evidence-based dementia care guidelines that prioritize communication and environmental modification over restraint or confrontation.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Speaking firmly to a patient with dementia who is already agitated is likely to increase fear, confusion, and behavioral escalation. Patients with dementia respond to the tone and emotional content of communication rather than the logical content of words, and a firm or authoritative tone can worsen agitation significantly.

B. Restraining the patient is a last resort measure that requires specific clinical justification and legal authorization. Physical restraints increase agitation, distress, and the risk of injury, and are associated with serious adverse outcomes including pressure injuries, deconditioning, aspiration, and psychological trauma. They are never appropriate as a first-line response to agitation in dementia.

D. Ignoring the agitated behavior and proceeding with care disregards the patient's distress, violates their dignity, and is likely to worsen the behavioral response. Forcing care on an agitated patient with dementia without first attempting de-escalation increases the risk of injury to both the patient and the nurse.

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