Managing Cloud Security (D320)
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Free Managing Cloud Security (D320) Questions
An organization believes that a man-in-the-middle attack is possible but unlikely to occur. However, if a successful attack occurs, the consequences will be serious. The cost estimate for reducing the risk of such an attack is much more than the organization wishes to pay.
Which factor will determine whether the organization decides to pay the amount to mitigate the risk of an attack?
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Risk appetite
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Risk management
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Inherent risk
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Residual risk
Explanation
Correct Answer
A) Risk appetite
Explanation
Risk appetite refers to the level of risk an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. In this scenario, the organization assesses the severity of the consequences of the attack against the cost of mitigating the risk. If the potential cost of mitigation exceeds the organization’s risk appetite, it might choose to accept the risk instead of mitigating it.
Why other options are wrong
B) Risk management
Risk management refers to the overall process of identifying, assessing, and managing risks. While it is involved in the decision-making process, the specific decision about whether to mitigate or accept the risk is guided by the organization’s risk appetite, not the broader concept of risk management.
C) Inherent risk
Inherent risk is the level of risk that exists in the absence of any controls or mitigation strategies. While this is part of the overall risk assessment, the decision to mitigate risk is based more on the organization’s risk appetite, not the inherent risk alone.
D) Residual risk
Residual risk is the remaining risk after controls are applied. The decision about whether to mitigate a risk is more directly tied to risk appetite than the residual risk, which only accounts for risk after mitigation strategies have been implemented.
Which concept refers to multiple teams and roles within an organization that perform testing on code from end to end to ensure that the code meets all standards and requirements?
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Quality assurance
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Identity assurance
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Full tests
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Tabletop tests
Explanation
Correct Answer
A. Quality assurance
Explanation
Quality assurance (QA) refers to the systematic process of ensuring that the code, product, or service meets specified standards and requirements. In QA, multiple teams and roles work together to perform end-to-end testing to identify defects, ensure functionality, and maintain quality throughout the development process.
Why other options are wrong
B. Identity assurance
Identity assurance refers to the processes and technologies used to confirm the identity of users or systems. While identity is important in security, it does not pertain to testing code for quality or compliance.
C. Full tests
Full tests are not a specific concept or methodology in software testing. While comprehensive tests may be performed during QA, "full tests" is not a recognized standard term for testing from end to end.
D. Tabletop tests
Tabletop tests are typically used in business continuity and disaster recovery planning. These tests involve simulations and discussions rather than performing actual testing of code. They are not related to end-to-end code testing for standards and requirements.
An internal developer deploys a new customer information system at a company. The system has an updated graphical interface with new fields. Which type of functional testing ensures that the graphical interface used by employees to input customer data behaves as the employees need it to?
- Acceptance testing
- Load testing
- Regression testing
- Security testing
Explanation
The type of functional testing that ensures the graphical interface behaves as employees need it to is "Acceptance testing." This type of testing verifies that the system meets the specified requirements and is ready for operational use, focusing on the user interface and its functionality.
Correct Answer Is:
Acceptance testing
An organization is taking part in a disaster recovery (DR) exercise that simulates a natural disaster. The key players are performing minimal actions that test the call tree to ensure that all the contact information is up to date.
Which type of testing is the organization performing?
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Full
-
Dry run
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Split
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Abuse case
Explanation
Correct Answer
B) Dry run
Explanation
A dry run is a type of test where a scenario is simulated with minimal action to validate certain elements of the disaster recovery process, such as verifying contact information or testing communication procedures. In this case, the organization is ensuring that contact information is current, but no actual recovery operations are taking place.
Why other options are wrong
A) Full
A full DR test involves executing the entire disaster recovery plan, including actual recovery of systems and data. This is a more comprehensive test than the dry run, which focuses on a limited subset of actions.
C) Split
Split testing is a term used in marketing and A/B testing, where two versions of something (e.g., a web page) are compared. This term is not relevant to disaster recovery testing.
D) Abuse case
Abuse case testing involves identifying potential malicious actions that could exploit vulnerabilities in a system. This is not related to testing disaster recovery procedures or contact information updates.
Which process describes the tracking and monitoring of evidence, including who had access and what controls were used, from the time it is classified and gathered for evidential purposes until the time it is delivered to a court or law enforcement officials?
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Audit
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Chain of custody
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Electronic discovery
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Forensic imaging
Explanation
Correct Answer
B) Chain of custody
Explanation
Chain of custody refers to the documentation and process of tracking evidence from the moment it is gathered until it is presented in court or to law enforcement. This ensures that the evidence is protected from tampering and maintains its integrity for use in legal proceedings. The chain of custody establishes accountability, proving who had access to the evidence at every point in time.
Why other options are wrong
A) Audit An audit refers to the systematic review of activities, processes, or systems to ensure compliance with standards and regulations, but it is not specifically concerned with tracking the handling and movement of evidence for legal purposes.
C) Electronic discovery Electronic discovery (e-discovery) involves gathering, processing, and reviewing electronic data for use in legal matters. While related, it does not focus on the tracking of evidence through a chain of custody.
D) Forensic imaging Forensic imaging refers to the process of creating a bit-by-bit copy of a storage device to preserve evidence for further analysis. It is a step in the process of gathering evidence but does not involve tracking its handling once gathered.
Developers need to be aware of a common application programming interface (API) threat that occurs when attackers send malicious code through a form input to a web application so that it may then be executed. Which type of attack represents this API threat?
- Injection
- On-path
- Denial-of-service
- Credential
Explanation
The correct answer is "Injection." Injection attacks, such as SQL injection, occur when attackers send malicious code through input fields, which is then executed by the web application. This is a common API security threat and can compromise the application's data and functionality.
Correct Answer Is:
Injection
Which of the following hypervisor types is most likely to be seen in a cloud provider's data center?
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Type 1
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Type 2
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Type 3
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Type 4
Explanation
Correct Answer
A) Type 1
Explanation
A Type 1 hypervisor, also known as a "bare-metal" hypervisor, runs directly on the host machine's hardware, providing better performance and efficiency. Cloud providers typically use Type 1 hypervisors in their data centers to manage virtual machines (VMs) because they offer greater resource control, security, and scalability compared to Type 2 hypervisors.
Why other options are wrong
B) Type 2
A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of an existing operating system, which is less efficient for cloud environments that require high performance, scalability, and resource control.
C) Type 3
There is no widely recognized Type 3 hypervisor in the standard classification of hypervisor types.
D) Type 4
Similarly, there is no Type 4 hypervisor in the standard classification. Hypervisors are typically classified as Type 1 or Type 2.
Which software type allows multiple operating systems to run on the same physical server in a virtualized environment?
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Hypervisor
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Container
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Quantum computing
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Blockchain technology
Explanation
Correct Answer
A. Hypervisor
Explanation
A hypervisor is software that enables multiple virtual machines (VMs) to run on the same physical server, providing virtualization. It abstracts the hardware and allows each VM to operate independently with its own operating system, making efficient use of physical resources. Hypervisors are essential in creating virtualized environments where different OS instances can run simultaneously on a single physical server.
Why other options are wrong
B. Container
Containers are a lightweight form of virtualization that allow applications to run in isolated environments, but they do not virtualize entire operating systems. Instead, containers share the same OS kernel, making them more efficient but limiting them to a single operating system per host.
C. Quantum computing
Quantum computing involves using quantum-mechanical phenomena, such as superposition and entanglement, to perform computations. It is unrelated to virtualizing multiple operating systems on a physical server and is not suitable for typical virtualization tasks.
D. Blockchain technology
Blockchain technology is a decentralized digital ledger used to store transactions securely and transparently. It does not support the virtualization of operating systems, making it irrelevant to the question.
An organization designing a data center wants the ability to quickly create and shut down virtual systems based on demand. Which concept describes this capability?
- Resource scheduling
- Ephemeral computing
- High availability
- Maintenance mode
Explanation
The concept that describes the ability to quickly create and shut down virtual systems based on demand is ephemeral computing. Ephemeral computing allows the system to spin up temporary instances or virtual machines that are created for a specific task and then terminated when no longer needed, ensuring efficient resource use.
Correct Answer Is:
Ephemeral computing
Which U.S. standard is used by federal government agencies to manage enterprise risk?
- The Committee of Sponsoring Organizations (COSO) framework
- The Statement on Standards for Attestation Engagements 18 (SSAE 18)
- International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 37500
- The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-37
Explanation
The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-37 is the U.S. standard used by federal government agencies to manage enterprise risk. This publication provides a comprehensive framework for managing information system security risks and is widely adopted by federal agencies to ensure effective risk management practices and information security controls.
Correct Answer Is:
The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-37
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