Managing Cloud Security (D320)
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Free Managing Cloud Security (D320) Questions
Which of the following hypervisor types is most likely to be seen in a cloud provider's data center?
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Type 1
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Type 2
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Type 3
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Type 4
Explanation
Correct Answer
A) Type 1
Explanation
A Type 1 hypervisor, also known as a "bare-metal" hypervisor, runs directly on the host machine's hardware, providing better performance and efficiency. Cloud providers typically use Type 1 hypervisors in their data centers to manage virtual machines (VMs) because they offer greater resource control, security, and scalability compared to Type 2 hypervisors.
Why other options are wrong
B) Type 2
A Type 2 hypervisor runs on top of an existing operating system, which is less efficient for cloud environments that require high performance, scalability, and resource control.
C) Type 3
There is no widely recognized Type 3 hypervisor in the standard classification of hypervisor types.
D) Type 4
Similarly, there is no Type 4 hypervisor in the standard classification. Hypervisors are typically classified as Type 1 or Type 2.
An organization is informed by its cloud provider that a storage device containing some of the organization's data has been seized as possible evidence in a court case, but the organization itself is not involved in any ongoing court cases. Which characteristic of a cloud environment architecture makes such a scenario possible?
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Software as a service (SaaS)
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Platform as a service (PaaS)
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Virtualization
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Multitenancy
Explanation
The scenario described is possible due to multitenancy, which is a feature of cloud computing where multiple customers (tenants) share the same physical resources, such as storage or computing power. In multitenancy, data from different organizations can be stored on the same device, and in cases where legal actions involve data from multiple tenants, one tenant's data may be seized, affecting other tenants indirectly. This can occur without the organization itself being involved.
Correct Answer Is:
Multitenancy
Which section of a contract includes the customer's right to audit the vendor to verify whether the vendor is fulfilling its contractual obligations?
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Termination
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Assurance
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Litigation
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Indemnification
Explanation
The assurance section of a contract includes the customer's right to audit the vendor. This section ensures that the vendor is meeting its obligations and provides the customer with the means to verify that the contract terms are being adhered to.
Correct Answer Is:
Assurance
An organization needs to store passwords in a database securely. The data should not be available to system administrators.
Which technique should the organization use?
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Encryption
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Hashing
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Encoding
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Masking
Explanation
Correct Answer
B. Hashing
Explanation
Hashing is the process of converting data, such as a password, into a fixed-length string of characters using a mathematical algorithm. It is a one-way process, meaning the original password cannot be derived from the hash. This ensures that even system administrators cannot retrieve the actual passwords. Hashing is a widely accepted method for storing passwords securely and protecting them from unauthorized access.
Why other options are wrong
A. Encryption
Encryption is a two-way process that encodes data and allows it to be decrypted with a key. While it provides strong protection, the encrypted data can still be accessed and decrypted by those with the correct key—such as system administrators. This means passwords could potentially be recovered, which violates the requirement that they not be accessible to admins. Hashing is preferable for password storage due to its irreversible nature.
C. Encoding
Encoding is used to transform data into a format that can be transmitted or stored easily, often for compatibility rather than security. It is not a secure method of protecting sensitive data like passwords because it can be easily reversed. Anyone with knowledge of the encoding scheme can decode the data. Therefore, encoding does not meet the security requirements needed for storing passwords.
D. Masking
Data masking involves hiding parts of the data to prevent exposure, usually for purposes like displaying limited information. However, the original data still exists and can be accessed in full by someone with the proper permissions. It is not meant for storing passwords securely because it does not prevent administrators from accessing the full password. Thus, it is not an appropriate technique in this case.
An organization wants to ensure that all entities trust any certificate generated internally in the organization. What should be used to generate these certificates?
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Individual systems' private keys
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The organization's certificate repository server
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The organization's certificate authority server
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Individual users' private keys
Explanation
To ensure that all entities trust any certificate generated internally, the organization should use the "certificate authority server" to generate these certificates. A certificate authority (CA) is trusted to issue digital certificates, and its certificates are trusted by other systems, ensuring that the generated certificates are recognized and trusted within the organization and externally.
Correct Answer Is:
The organization's certificate authority server
Which purpose does an intrusion prevention system (IPS) serve when compared to an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
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An IPS detects and stops malicious traffic, while an IDS detects and alerts about malicious traffic.
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An IPS detects and alerts about malicious traffic, while an IDS detects and stops malicious traffic.
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An IDS tells an IPS what malicious traffic it detects, and then the IPS blocks that traffic.
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An IPS tells an IDS what malicious traffic it detects, and then the IDS blocks that traffic.
Explanation
Correct Answer
An IPS detects and stops malicious traffic, while an IDS detects and alerts about malicious traffic.
Explanation
An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) actively monitors network traffic and can stop or block malicious activity in real-time. In contrast, an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) only detects and alerts security personnel about potential malicious traffic, but it does not have the capability to stop or block it.
Why other options are wrong
An IPS detects and alerts about malicious traffic, while an IDS detects and stops malicious traffic. This is incorrect because the IPS has the capability to stop malicious traffic, while the IDS only detects and alerts.
An IDS tells an IPS what malicious traffic it detects, and then the IPS blocks that traffic. This is not how the two systems function. While they may work in conjunction, the IDS does not instruct the IPS to block traffic. The IPS independently handles blocking.
An IPS tells an IDS what malicious traffic it detects, and then the IDS blocks that traffic. This is incorrect because the IDS does not have the ability to block traffic. The IPS performs the blocking, not the IDS.
_______ drive security decisions.
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Customer service responses
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Surveys
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Business requirements
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Public opinion
Explanation
Correct Answer
C) Business requirements
Explanation
Business requirements drive security decisions because they dictate the need for specific security controls and policies based on the company's objectives, regulatory requirements, and operational needs. These requirements ensure that security measures align with the business's risk tolerance, goals, and necessary protections.
Why other options are wrong
A) Customer service responses
Customer service responses may reflect customer concerns or feedback, but they do not directly determine security decisions. Security decisions are based on strategic and business needs, not solely on customer service interactions.
B) Surveys
Surveys can provide useful data for understanding user needs or concerns, but they do not inherently drive security decisions. Security decisions are more influenced by business priorities and regulatory requirements.
D) Public opinion
Public opinion might influence some business decisions, but security decisions are guided by business requirements and specific threats, not the general public's view.
Which tier of service is provided by a data center that is designed to have independent and physically isolated systems, multiple distribution paths, and fault tolerance for components?
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Tier 1
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Tier 2
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Tier 3
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Tier 4
Explanation
Correct Answer
D) Tier 4
Explanation
Tier 4 data centers provide the highest level of service, designed for maximum fault tolerance and redundancy. They are equipped with fully independent and isolated systems, multiple distribution paths, and fault tolerance for every critical component, ensuring 99.995% availability.
Why other options are wrong
A) Tier 1
Tier 1 data centers offer basic protection against interruptions but lack redundancy, fault tolerance, and independent systems. They provide the lowest level of availability (99.671%).
B) Tier 2
Tier 2 data centers provide some redundancy and fault tolerance but still lack the full isolation and multiple distribution paths found in Tier 4 centers. They offer 99.741% availability.
C) Tier 3
Tier 3 data centers have multiple distribution paths and some fault tolerance, but they do not offer the level of redundancy and fault isolation of a Tier 4 data center. They provide 99.982% availability.
Which design pillar encompasses the ability to support development and run workloads effectively, gain insights into operations, and continuously improve supporting processes to deliver business value?
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Performance efficiency
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Sustainability
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Reliability
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Operational excellence
Explanation
The correct design pillar is "Operational excellence." This pillar focuses on the ability to support and run workloads efficiently, gain valuable insights into operations, and continuously improve processes to deliver business value. It is central to maintaining and optimizing business operations.
Correct Answer Is:
Operational excellence
After an internal audit, an organization determined that its cloud deployment may be vulnerable to threats from external attackers.
What should the organization implement to mitigate this risk?
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Hardened virtual machines with strong access controls
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Mandatory vacation and job rotation for employees
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Real-time video surveillance monitoring of physical access to devices
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USB-blocking software to prevent unauthorized devices from being used
Explanation
Correct Answer
A) Hardened virtual machines with strong access controls
Explanation
To mitigate external threats, the organization should focus on securing its cloud resources by implementing hardened virtual machines. This involves configuring the virtual machines with secure settings, such as disabling unnecessary services, applying the latest patches, and using strong access controls like multi-factor authentication (MFA) and the principle of least privilege. These measures help reduce the attack surface and make it more difficult for external attackers to gain unauthorized access.
Why other options are wrong
B) Mandatory vacation and job rotation for employees
While this is an internal security measure to prevent insider threats, it is not directly related to mitigating external threats, which is the focus of this question. This measure is more about ensuring that no individual has undue access to sensitive systems for extended periods.
C) Real-time video surveillance monitoring of physical access to devices
This is a physical security measure, but external attackers generally target vulnerabilities in the cloud infrastructure rather than physical access to the devices. This may not effectively address the threat of external attackers accessing the system remotely.
D) USB-blocking software to prevent unauthorized devices from being used
USB-blocking software is an endpoint security measure aimed at preventing data leakage or malware through external USB devices. While important for physical device security, it does not address the risk of external attackers targeting the cloud infrastructure or virtual machines.
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