Managing Cloud Security (D320)
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Free Managing Cloud Security (D320) Questions
You are working on a governance project designed to make sure the different cloud services used in your organization work well together. What goal are you attempting to achieve?
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Performance
-
Resiliency
-
Reversibility
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Interoperability
Explanation
Correct Answer
D) Interoperability
Explanation
In the context of cloud governance, interoperability refers to the ability of different cloud services to work together seamlessly, enabling the exchange and integration of data and functionality across various cloud platforms. This ensures that services from different providers can communicate effectively, leading to a more cohesive and functional cloud ecosystem.
Why other options are wrong
A) Performance
Performance focuses on ensuring cloud services operate efficiently and meet the organization's needs, but it is not the primary focus of governance aimed at integration.
B) Resiliency
Resiliency refers to the ability of systems to withstand and recover from disruptions, which is important for cloud services but is not the main goal of ensuring that services work together effectively.
C) Reversibility
Reversibility pertains to the ability to move away from a cloud provider or technology, but it does not directly address the goal of ensuring that services interact and work well together within governance frameworks.
Which security concept requires continuous identity and authorization checks to allow access to data?
- Secret management
- Intrusion prevention
- Traffic inspection
- Zero trust
Explanation
Zero trust is a security model that requires continuous verification of identity and authorization for every user and device, regardless of whether they are inside or outside the network perimeter. This concept assumes that every access attempt is potentially compromised, and therefore, access is granted based on strict verification, with constant monitoring. This approach ensures that access to data is continually controlled and reviewed.
Correct Answer Is:
Zero trust
An organization experienced an unplanned event. As a result, the customers using the web application face a loss of service. What does the incident generated in this situation seek to resolve?
- Change
- Disruption
- Error
- Bug
Explanation
The correct answer is "Disruption." The situation describes an unplanned event that causes a loss of service for the users, which is typically categorized as a disruption. A disruption refers to an unexpected incident that affects the availability or functioning of a service, requiring attention and resolution.
Correct Answer Is:
Disruption
Which type of statement issued by an auditor indicates that an organization did not disclose enough information to perform a fair audit?
-
Income
-
Adverse opinion
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Compliance
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Scope limitation
Explanation
Correct Answer
D) Scope limitation
Explanation
A scope limitation occurs when the auditor is unable to obtain sufficient evidence to perform a fair audit. This might be due to a lack of access to necessary information or restrictions placed on the audit process. As a result, the auditor cannot form an opinion on the financial statements.
Why other options are wrong
A) Income
Income is a financial measure of revenue, not a type of audit opinion. It is not related to the auditor's statement about the fairness or completeness of the audit process.
B) Adverse opinion
An adverse opinion is issued when an auditor determines that the financial statements are materially misstated and do not present an accurate view of the organization’s financial position. It is not related to a lack of information or access during the audit.
C) Compliance
Compliance refers to the organization’s adherence to laws, regulations, and standards. It is not a type of auditor’s opinion about the audit process itself. It does not indicate issues related to disclosure or access to information.
An organization's help desk receives a call from a person claiming to be an employee wanting to verify their home address on file. The caller answers the basic authentication questions, so the help desk employee provides them the sensitive information. The organization later discovers that this call was fraudulent. Which type of threat does this represent?
- Internal threats
- Social engineering
- Man-in-the-middle attacks
- Escalation of privilege
Explanation
This scenario represents a social engineering threat, where the attacker manipulates individuals into providing confidential information by pretending to be someone they are not. In this case, the attacker used deceptive tactics to impersonate an employee and trick the help desk into divulging sensitive data.
Correct Answer Is:
Social engineering
In most redundant array of independent disks (RAID) configurations, data is stored across different disks. Which method of storing data is described?
- Crypto-shredding
- Mapping
- Striping
- Archiving
Explanation
In RAID configurations, the method of storing data across different disks is known as "Striping." This technique distributes the data evenly across multiple disks to enhance performance and fault tolerance, which increases the read and write speed by accessing several drives simultaneously.
Correct Answer Is:
Striping
An organization's security architects determined that all authentication and authorization requests need to be validated before any employee can access corporate resources. Because of this, the organization needs to implement a system that stores and manages the employees’ credential information and then validates any requests sent.
- Hardware security module (HSM)
- Identity provider (IdP)
- Bastion host
- Zero trust
Explanation
A Zero trust system is designed to validate all authentication and authorization requests, ensuring that no entity is trusted by default. This approach continuously checks all users, devices, and network connections to confirm they are legitimate before granting access to resources, effectively meeting the architects' requirement.
Correct Answer Is:
Zero trust
Which type of analysis compares a control analysis against a baseline standard?
-
Privacy impact analysis
-
Gap analysis
-
Risk analysis
-
Business impact analysis
Explanation
Correct Answer
B) Gap analysis
Explanation
A gap analysis compares the current state of a system or process against a desired or baseline standard. This helps identify areas where improvements or changes are needed to close the gap between the current state and the desired outcome.
Why other options are wrong
A) Privacy impact analysis
A privacy impact analysis (PIA) focuses on identifying and addressing privacy risks in a project or system, but it does not compare controls to a baseline standard. Instead, it evaluates privacy risks and mitigations.
C) Risk analysis
Risk analysis involves identifying and assessing risks to an organization, but it does not focus on comparing controls to a baseline standard. It’s more about evaluating potential threats and vulnerabilities to determine the level of risk.
D) Business impact analysis
A business impact analysis (BIA) is used to determine the potential impact of disruptions to business operations and to help prioritize recovery efforts. It does not compare controls to a baseline standard.
Which phase of the cloud data life cycle requires adherence to export and import restrictions, including Export Administration Regulations (EAR) and the Wassenaar Arrangement?
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Create
-
Share
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Use
-
Destroy
Explanation
Correct Answer
B. Share
Explanation
The share phase of the cloud data life cycle involves transmitting or making data accessible beyond the boundaries of its original environment. During this stage, data might cross national borders, invoking regulations like the Export Administration Regulations (EAR) and international agreements like the Wassenaar Arrangement. These controls ensure that sensitive or dual-use technologies are not improperly transferred to foreign entities. Adhering to these regulations is crucial to maintain compliance and security when data is shared across jurisdictions.
Why other options are wrong
A. Create
The create phase focuses on the generation or origination of data. While data classification may occur during this phase, regulatory concerns like EAR or the Wassenaar Arrangement are generally not triggered until data is transmitted or accessed externally. Therefore, this stage does not inherently involve cross-border or export considerations.
C. Use
Using data refers to accessing, processing, or modifying data within its existing boundaries. This activity does not typically result in data crossing borders or being exported. Thus, it does not directly invoke regulations such as EAR or the Wassenaar Arrangement, which are tied to data transfer and sharing.
D. Destroy
The destroy phase concerns the safe deletion or elimination of data when it is no longer needed. Since the data is being eliminated and not transferred or shared, this phase does not raise concerns about export controls or international sharing policies.
Which U.S. standard is used by federal government agencies to manage enterprise risk?
- The Committee of Sponsoring Organizations (COSO) framework
- The Statement on Standards for Attestation Engagements 18 (SSAE 18)
- International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 37500
- The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-37
Explanation
The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-37 is the U.S. standard used by federal government agencies to manage enterprise risk. This publication provides a comprehensive framework for managing information system security risks and is widely adopted by federal agencies to ensure effective risk management practices and information security controls.
Correct Answer Is:
The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-37
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