AWS Cloud Architecture (D319)

Correct Answer

B. To facilitate message queuing and decoupling of application components

Explanation

AWS SQS is a fully managed message queuing service that enables applications to communicate with each other by sending messages between decoupled components. It helps improve the scalability and reliability of applications by ensuring that messages are safely stored until they are processed.

Why other options are wrong

A. To provide a fully managed relational database service

This is incorrect because Amazon RDS (Relational Database Service) is the service designed for managing relational databases, not SQS.

C. To offer a serverless compute service for running code

This describes AWS Lambda, which allows you to run code in response to events, not SQS.

D. To monitor and collect metrics on AWS resources in real time

This is the function of Amazon CloudWatch, which provides monitoring for AWS resources, not SQS.

Correct Answer

B. VPN

Explanation

AWS VPN (Virtual Private Network) provides a secure and encrypted connection between an on-premises infrastructure and the AWS cloud. It uses IPsec (Internet Protocol Security) to create an encrypted tunnel over the internet for secure communication between the two environments.

Why other options are wrong

A. Direct Connect

While AWS Direct Connect provides a dedicated, private network connection between your on-premises infrastructure and AWS, it is not an encrypted solution like a VPN. It offers high bandwidth and low latency, but encryption must be handled separately.

C. CloudFront

AWS CloudFront is a content delivery network (CDN) service that speeds up the delivery of static and dynamic content to users globally. It is not used for secure connectivity between on-premises and AWS cloud infrastructure.

D. Route 53

Amazon Route 53 is a DNS (Domain Name System) service used to route user traffic to various AWS services. It does not provide encrypted or secure connections between on-premises infrastructure and AWS.

Correct Answer

A. Session Manager

Explanation

Session Manager is a feature of AWS Systems Manager that allows you to connect to your managed instances via an interactive browser-based shell. It enables secure access to EC2 instances and on-premises servers without the need for an SSH key or RDP connection.

Why other options are wrong

B. Fleet Manager

This is incorrect because Fleet Manager is part of AWS Systems Manager, but it provides a centralized console for managing and configuring instances, not for interactive shell access.

C. Patch Manager

This is incorrect because Patch Manager helps automate the process of patching operating systems and software on your managed instances, not for providing interactive access to those instances.

D. State Manager

This is incorrect because State Manager is used to define and manage the configuration of your instances, ensuring they maintain the desired state, not for interactive access.

Correct Answer

D. ECR

Explanation

Amazon Elastic Container Registry (ECR) is a fully managed Docker container registry that allows developers to store, manage, and deploy Docker container images. It integrates with Amazon ECS (Elastic Container Service) and other container orchestration tools to simplify the process of running containerized applications.

Why other options are wrong

A. Amazon EC2

Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) is a computer service for running virtual machines, not a container registry. It can be used to run Docker containers, but it doesn't store or manage Docker images.

B. Amazon Athena

Amazon Athena is a service for querying data stored in Amazon S3 using SQL. It is not a container registry and does not manage Docker container images.

C. ELB

Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) distributes incoming traffic across multiple targets, such as EC2 instances. While it helps manage application traffic, it is not used for storing or managing Docker images.

E. Auto Scaling

Auto Scaling is a service that automatically adjusts the number of instances in an application based on demand. It doesn't manage container images but works with services like EC2 or ECS to manage scaling.

Correct Answer

B. ECR

Explanation

Amazon Elastic Container Registry (ECR) is a fully managed container image registry service that allows developers to store, manage, and deploy Docker container images. It integrates easily with other AWS services, such as Amazon ECS and Amazon EKS, making it an ideal solution for containerized applications.

Why other options are wrong

A. EBS

Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS) provides block-level storage for EC2 instances but does not specifically address storing or managing Docker container images. It is useful for data persistence but not for container management.

C. EMR

Amazon EMR (Elastic MapReduce) is used for big data processing and analytics. It is not related to storing or managing Docker container images.

D. ECS

Amazon ECS (Elastic Container Service) is used to run and manage Docker containers on AWS, but it does not specifically handle storing or managing the images themselves. ECR is the service for storing Docker images, which ECS can then use to deploy containers.

Correct Answer

D. Use a bucket policy to grant permission to users in its account as well as to users in another account

Explanation

A bucket policy is the most effective way to grant cross-account access to an S3 bucket. It allows the bucket owner to specify access permissions for any AWS account, including users in other accounts, using the AWS account ID and IAM user details. Bucket policies are attached directly to the bucket and can specify access rules for multiple accounts or users, making them ideal for managing shared access scenarios. They are especially useful when granting access to external accounts that the bucket owner does not control directly.

Why other options are wrong

A. Use either a bucket policy or a user policy to grant permission to users in its account as well as to users in another account

This option is partially correct but misleading. While user policies can grant access to users within the same AWS account, they cannot be used to grant access to users in a different AWS account. Only a bucket policy or a resource-based policy can grant access to external accounts, making this option inaccurate for cross-account access.

B. Use a user policy to grant permission to users in its account as well as to users in another account

User policies are identity-based and scoped only within the account they belong to. They cannot be used to grant access to resources owned by another AWS account. To allow access from another account, a resource-based policy like a bucket policy is required. Hence, this option fails to address cross-account access.

C. Use permissions boundary to grant permission to users in its account as well as to users in another account

Permission boundaries are used to set the maximum permissions that an IAM user or role can have, but they do not grant permissions themselves. They also do not facilitate access to resources across AWS accounts. Therefore, this option is incorrect because it does not fulfill the requirement of granting cross-account access.

Correct Answer

C. A scalable SQL data warehouse designed for big data analytics

Explanation

Amazon Redshift is a fully managed, petabyte-scale data warehouse service in the cloud. It is designed for big data analytics and allows you to run complex queries and perform business intelligence operations on massive datasets.

Why other options are wrong

A. A fully managed NoSQL database service

This is incorrect because Amazon Redshift is not a NoSQL database service. It is a relational data warehouse service designed for structured data.

B. A serverless SQL service for analyzing data in S3

While Amazon Redshift can analyze data stored in S3 using Spectrum, Redshift itself is not a serverless service. Amazon Athena would be the serverless SQL service used to analyze data directly in S3.

D. A cloud desktop service for remote work

This is incorrect because Amazon Redshift is not related to remote desktop services. Services like Amazon WorkSpaces or AppStream 2.0 are designed for remote work.

Correct Answer

A. Use S3 One-Zone Infrequent Access (One-Zone IA) to store the thumbnails

Explanation

S3 One-Zone Infrequent Access (One-Zone IA) is a cost-effective storage option for data that is infrequently accessed but requires immediate availability when needed. It stores data in a single Availability Zone, which reduces storage costs while still providing fast access to the data. Since the photos can be regenerated if lost, One-Zone IA is an ideal solution for this use case.

Why other options are wrong

B. Elimination of expenses for running and maintaining data centers

This option doesn't directly address the need for storing photos on S3. It talks about the broader benefit of using AWS but is not specific to the question of cost-effective storage for rarely accessed data.

C. Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)

Amazon SNS is a messaging service for sending notifications to subscribers, not for storing data like photos. This is not suitable for the use case described.

D. Amazon WorkSpaces virtual Windows desktop

Amazon WorkSpaces is a managed desktop-as-a-service solution, not a storage service for images. It is unrelated to storing photos in S3.

Correct Answer

A. SNS pushes its messages out to its subscribers, and SQS stores the messages until someone reads them and processes them off the queue.

Explanation

SNS (Simple Notification Service) is a messaging service that pushes messages to subscribers in real time, making it suitable for sending notifications. In contrast, SQS (Simple Queue Service) is a message queue that stores messages until they are read and processed by consumers. SNS is used for broadcasting messages, while SQS is designed for decoupling and storing messages for later processing.

Why other options are wrong

B. SNS stores messages in the queue, and SQS deletes messages off the queue.

This statement is incorrect because SNS does not store messages in a queue; it sends them to subscribers. SQS stores messages and allows consumers to pull them when ready.

C. SNS is a subscriber and SQS is a publisher.

This is incorrect because SNS is a publisher, sending messages to its subscribers, while SQS is a queueing service where messages are stored until processed.

D. SNS stores messages until someone reads them, and SQS pushes its messages out to its subscribers.

This is incorrect because SNS does not store messages; it pushes them to subscribers. SQS, on the other hand, stores messages until they are processed by consumers.